general knowledge solved #9

Q.1. When a ray of light passes from an optically denser medium to a rarer medium, it
(a) Remains undeviated (b) Bends towards normal
(c) Bends away from normal (d) None of these

Q.2.Who is the author of "Anandmath" ?
(a) Rabindranath Tagore (b) Bankim chandra Chattopadhyaya
(c) Sarojini Nayadu (d) Jyotiba Phule

Q.3. Thimpu is the capital of -
(a) Nepal (b) Bhutan
(c) Thailand (d) Myanmar

Q.4. The time period of a seconds pendulum is
(a) 1 second (b) 4 seconds
(c) 3 seconds (d) 2 seconds


Q.5. The nuclear fuel in the sun is
(a) Helium (b) Uranium
(c) Hydrogen (d) Oxygen

Q.6. The second’s hand of a watch is 2 cm long. The velocity of its tip is
(a) 0.21 cm/sec. (b) 2.1 cm/sec.
(c) 21 cm/sec. (d) None of these

Q.7. In diesel engine, ignition is caused by
(a) Spark (b) Automatic starter
(c) Compression (d) Friction

Q.8. The mass-energy equivalence, relationship E = mc2 was propounded by
(a) Max Plank (b) Einstein
(c) Newton (d) Hertz

Q.9. The filament of bulb is made of
(a) Tungsten (b) Iron
(c) Nichrome (d) Carbon





Q.10. Anti-knocking can be lessened by
(a) Iso Octane (b) N Heptane
(c) TEL (d) Benzene

Q.11. In which of the following oxidation shows a positive oxidation state.
(a) CO (b) N2O
(c) NO (d) F2O

Q.12. Which of the following is used in photography?
(a) Silver Bromide (b) Sodium Bromide
(c) Potassium Chloride (d) Sodium Sulphate

Q.13. Which of the following is used in accumulator cell?
(a) Copper (b) Iron
(c) Lead (d) Zinc

Q.14. Choose the wrong statement :
(a) Single magnetic poles can exist
(b) Magnetic poles are always of equal strength
(c) Like poles repel each other
(d) None of these

Q.15. Laws of electrolysis are given by:
(a) Farady (b) Maxwell
(c) Lenz (d) Bohr

Q.16. Flemings left hand rule is used to fine out:
(a) Direction of magnetic field due to flow of current
(b) Direction of induced current due to effect of magnetic field
(c) Direction of motion of a current carrying conductor in magnetic field
(d) None of these

Q.17. The pH of a neutral solution at 250C is :
(a) 0 (b) 1.0
(c) 7.0 (d) 1.4

Q.18. The raw material used for the manufacture of Portland cement is :
(a) Limestone and clay (b) Alumina, clay and gypsum
(c) Gypsum and limestone (d) Gypsum and clay

19. CaOCI2 is the chemical formula for a compound commonly known as :(a) Soda Ash (b) Lime
(c) Bleaching Powder (d) Plaster of Paris

Q.20. The glass used for making laboratory apparatus is :
(a) Pyrex glass (b) Hard glass
(c) Soft glass (d) Safety glass

Q.21. The iron produced in blast furnace is :
(a) Pig iron (b) Wrought iron
(c) Stainless steel (d) Steel

Q.22. Formation is a 40% solution of :
(a) Methanol (b) Methenal
(c) Methanoic acid (d) None of these

Q.23. Which of the following is not an ore of aluminium :
(a) Cryolite (b) Feldspar
(c) Bauxite (d) Azurite

Q.24. Rhombic monoclinic and plastic sulphur are:
(a) Isomers (b) Isotopes
(c) Allotropes (d) Hydrides of sulphur

Q.25. The alkaline hydrolysis of oils or fats gives soap and :
(a) Glycerol (b) Ethenol
(c) Glycol (d) Ethanoic acid

Q.26. The sight of a delicious food usually makes month watery. It is a :
(a) Hormonal response (b) Neural response
(c) Optic response (d) Olfactory response

Q.27. Nitrogen fixing bacteria are normally found in :
(a) Parasitic plants (b) Epiphytic plants
(c) Leguminous plants (d) Aquatic plants

Q.28. Powdery mildew of wheat is caused by:
(a) Bacteria (b) Virus
(c) Fungi (d) Protozoans

Q.29. Septic sore throat is caused by :
(a) Bacteria (b) Virus
(c) Fungi (d) Protozoans

Q.30. A person of blood group AB can give blood to :
(a) ‘A’ and ‘B’ (b) Only ‘AB’
(c) ‘A’, ‘B’ and ‘O’ (d) All of these

Q.31. Cell activities are controlled by :
(a) Chloroplast (b) Nitochondria
(c) Cytoplasm (d) Nucleus

Q.32. Which of the following helps eye to adjust the focal length of the eye lens :
(a) Cornea (b) Conjunctiva
(c) Ciliary body (d) Iris

Q.33. When pollen of a flower is transferred to the stigma of the same plant, pollination type is referred to as :
(a) Autogamy (b) Allogamy
(c) Xenogamy (d) Geitonogamy

Q.34. Respiration is a :
(a) Catabolic process (b) Anabolic process
(c) Both of these (d) None of these

Q.35. The structural and functional unit of kidneys are :
(a) Neurons (b) Nephrons
(c) Medula (d) None of these

Q.36. Which of the following enzymes is generally nor present in adult human :
(a) Renin (b) Pepsin
(c) Trypsin (d) Amylopsin

Q.37. The part of the plant which is responsible for carrying water and solutes from roots to various parts of plants is :
(a) Phloem (b) Xylem
(c) Duodenum (d) Sclercids

Q.38. ‘Widal test’ is used for susceptibility of :
(a) Malaria (b) Typhoid
(c) Cholera (d) Yellow fever

Q.39. Exchange of gases in plants takes place through :
(a) Stomata (b) Lenticels
(c) Cuticle (d) All of these

Q.40. ‘Lieutenant’ in army is equivalent to following rank in navy :
(a) Lieutenant (b) Sub Lieutanant
(c) Lieutenant Commander (d) None of these

Q.41. Pankaj Advani is associated with :
(a) Snooker (b) Golf
(c) Shooting (d) Archery

Q.42. Which city in the world is known as the forbidden city :
(a) Aberdeen (b) Jerusalem
(c) Mecca (d) Lhasa

Q.43. Rajeev Gandhi Khel Ratna Award carries a sum of :
(a) Rs. 3 lakns (b) Rs. 5 lakhs
(c) Rs. 1 lakh (d) Rs. 7 lakhs

Q.44. Who is known as ‘Nightingale of India’ :
(a) Asha Bhonsle (b) Begum Akhtar
(c) Sarojini Naidu (d) Vijaylaxmi Pandit

Q.45. Which one of the following is not included in the UNESCO’s list of world heritage site :
(a) Kaziranga National Park (b) Qutab Minar
(c) Champaner Pavagarh (d) None of these

Q.46. Which of the following is not an electric resistant?
(a) Lead (b) Ebonite
(c) Charcoal (d) Lac

Q.47. Which of the following is a complementary colour?
(a) Blue (b) Yellow
(c) Magenta (d) Yellow and Magenta

Q.48. The velocity of sound increases in air by ……… for every degree Celsius increase of temperature.
(a) 60 m/sec. (b) 0.61 m/sec.
(c) 60 ft/sec. (d) 0.61 km/sec.

Q.49. Henry is a unit of
(a) Capacity (b) Magnetic field
(c) Inductance (d) Frequency

Q.50. The velocity of rotation of Earth is
(a) 28 km/min (b) 30 km/min
(c) 25 km/min (d) 39.5 km/min

Q.51. What is Hubble?
(a) Warship (b) Star
(c) Telescope (d) Missile

Q.52. Which acid is normally found in lemon and grape fruits?
(a) Citric acid (b) Tartaric acid
(c) Ascorbic acid (d) Lactic acid

Q.53. At which temperature Fahrenheit and Celsius show same reading?
(a) -400 (b) 00
(c) -574.250 (d) 2730

Q.54. Limestone is metamorphosed to form
(a) Graphite (b) Quartz
(c) Granite (d) Marble

Q.55. Rift valley is formed by
(a) Earthquake (b) Folding
(c) Faulting (d) All of these

Q.56. If a piece of ice at 00C is mixed with water at 00C, then
(a) Whole ice melts (b) Some ice melts
(c) No ice melts (d) Temperature decreases
Q.57. Mettur Dam is built on the river
(a) Krishna (b) Cauvery
(c) Narmada (d) Mahanadi

Q.58. Mahendra Giri peak is situated in the
(a) Eastern Ghats (b) Western Ghats
(c) Shiwaliks (d) Vindhyachal

Q.59. In what time a sum will double itself at 20% per annum rate of interest?
(a) 2 years (b) 3 years
(c) 4 years (d) 5 years

Q.60. The famous Dilwara Temple is situated in
(a) Madhya Pradesh (b) Maharashtra
(c) Gujarat (d) Rajasthan

Q.61. Pneumonia affects
(a) Lungs (b) Tongue
(c) Liver (d) Kidney

Q.62. The chemical name of Vitamin A is
(a) Retinol (b) Jhiamin
(c) Biotic (d) Riboflavin

Q.63. A 130m long train crosses a bridge in 30 seconds at 45 kmph. The length of the bridge is
(a) 200m (b) 225m
(c) 245m (d) 250m

Q.64. By selling an article at some price a person gains 10%. If the article is sold at twice of the price, the gain percent will be
(a) 20% (b) 60%
(c) 100% (d) 120%

Q.65. Atoms are electrically charged as
(a) Positive (b) Negative
(c) Bi-positive (d) Neutral
Q.66. Ionic bond exists in
(a) Kcl (b) H2O
(c) NH3 (d) Cl3

Q.67. Which force is required to increase the momentum of an object to 40 kg m/s in 5 seconds?
(a) 2N (b) 4N
(c) 8N (d) 10N

Q.68. The river that does not form delta is
(a) Mahanadi (b) Tapti
(c) Krishna (d) Cauvery

Q.69. The ratio of the redius and height of a cone is 5 : 12, respectively. Its volume is 23147cc. Find its slant height.
(a) 13cm (b) 14cm
(c) 17cm (d) 26cm

Q.70. 27 students took part in a debate of a college. What is the probability that at least 3 of them have their birth days in the same month?
(a) 3/27 (b) 3/12
(c) 12 (d) 1

Q.71. Who was the first winner of Dada Saheb Phalke Award?
(a) B.N.Sarkar (b) Prithvi Raj Kapoor
(c) Devika Rani (d) Kanan Devi

Q.72. How many members are nominated by the President in the Rajya Sabha?
(a) 12 (b) 15
(c) 10 (d) 20

Q.73. Who was the founder of Brahmo Samaj?
(a) Raja Rammohan Roy (b) Aurobindo Ghosh
(c) Vivekanand (d) Dyanand Saraswati

Q.74. The Parliamentary System in India has been taken from
(a) America (b) Britain
(c) Australia (d) Ireland

Q.75. The electric supply in India was first started in
(a) Kolkata (b) Chennai
(c) Mumbai (d) Darjeeling

Q.76. Bhatnagar Prize is given in the field of
(a) Peace (b) Music and dance
(c) Science & technology (d) Fine arts

Q.77. Who discovered the solar system?
(a) Copernicus (b) Kepler
(c) Aryabhatta (d) Newton

Q.78. The Nobel Prize in Economics was started in
(a) 1901 (b) 1936
(c) 1957 (d) 1967

Q.79. In India, the second largest in
(a) Bengali (b) Urdu
(c) Telugu (d) Marathi

Q.80. The first Asian Games were held in
(a) Manila (b) Tokyo
(c) Jakarta (d) New Delhi

Q.81. The Islam was established in
(a) 7th A.D. (b) 5th A.D.
(c) 3rd B.C. (d) 5th B.C.

Q.82. The Olympic Games 2012 will be held in
(a) Moscow (b) Paris
(c) New York (d) London

Q.83. The main factor of air pollution is
(a) Lead (b) Copper
(c) Zinc (d) Gold

Q.84. The bauxite ore is found in
(a) Musabani (b) Karnapura
(c) Koderma (d) Palamu

Q.85. The first fertilizer plant in India was established in
(a) Trombay (b) Nangal
(c) Alwaye (d) Sindri

Q.86. Which of the following had strong navy?
(a) Bahmani (b) Chalukya
(c) Chola (d) Rashtrakuta

Ans-(C)
Q.87. The last king of Maurya Dynastry was
(a) Brihdarth (b) Kunal
(c) Samprati (d) Salishuk

Ans-(A)
Q.88. How will the image formed by a convex lens be affected if the central part of the lens is covered by black paper?
(a) Remaining part of the lens will form no image
(b) The central position of the image is absent
(c) There will be no effect
(d) The full image will be formed with lessened brightness

Ans-(D)
Q.89. The force between two parallel wires conducting current is used to define
(a) Ampere (b) Coulomb
(c) Volt (d) Newton
ANS - (a)

Q.90. A body is thrown vertically upward and it reaches 10m high. Find the velocity with which the body was thrown? (g = 9.8 m/s)
(a) 10 m/sec. (b) 18 m/sec.
(c) 14 m/sec. (d) 7 m/sec.
ANS - (c)


1. (c) 2. (b) 3. (b) 4. (d) 5. (c) 6. (a) 7. (c) 8. (b) 9. (a) 10. (a) 11. (d) 12. (a)
13. (c) 14. (a) 15. (a) 16. (c) 17. (c) 18. (b) 19. (c) 20. (a) 21. (a) 22. (b) 23. (d)
24. (c) 25. (a) 26. (d) 27. (c) 28. (c) 29. (a & b) 30. (b) 31. (d) 32. (c) 33. (a) 34. (a)
35. (b) 36. (a) 37. (b) 38. (b) 39. (d) 40. (b) 41. (a) 42. (d) 43. (b) 44. (c) 45. (d) 46. (a)
47. (d) 48. (b) 49. (c) 50. (a) 51. (c) 52. (a) 53. (a) 54. (d) 55. (c) 56. (c) 57. (b) 58. (a)
59. (d) 60. (d) 61. (a) 62. (a) 63. (c) 64. (d) 65. (d) 66. (a) 67. (c) 68. (b) 69. (a) 70. (c)
71. (c) 72. (a) 73. (a) 74. (b) 75. (d) 76. (c) 77. (a) 78. (d) 79. (c) 80. (d) 81. (a) 82. (d)
83. (a) 84. (d) 85. (d) .


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GENERAL KNOWLEDGE SOLVED #8

1. The Kishenganga Power Project is in-
A. Orissa
B. Maharashtra
C. Gujarat
D. Jammu & Kashmir
Ans (D)


2. The late Nirmala Desh Pande was a famous
A. diplomat
B. astrologer
C. Social activist
D. film-star
Ans (C)


3. Who has been awarded the Prem Bhatia Award for the year 2008 ?
A. Nilanjana Bose
B. Rupashree Nanda
C. Nirupama Subramanian
D. None of these
Ans (C)


4. Microwave ovens cook dishes by means of
A. Ultraviolet rays
B. Infra-red rays
C. Convection
D. Conduction
Ans (D)


5. Most of the phenomena related to weather take place in
A. stratosphere
B. ionosphere
C. mesosphere
D. troposphere
Ans (D)


6. The current President of the World Bank is
A. Dominique Strauss-Kahn
B. James D. Wolfansen
C. Barbara Cartland
D. Robert Zoellick
Ans (D)


7. Amartya Sen, the NRI Nobel laureate got the honour for his work on
A. Game theory
B. Securities analysis
C. Poverty and famines
D.Impact of Industrialization
Ans (C)


8. The Quit India resolution was passed at the
A. Bombay session of I.N.C. in 1940
B. Bombay session of I.N.C. in 1941
C. Bombay session of I.N.C. in 1942
D. Bombay session of I.N.C. in 1945.
Ans (C)


9. Who among the following is not a ghazal singer?
A. Talat Aziz
B. Chandan Dass
C. Peenaz Masani
D. Jagdev Singh
Ans (D)


10. Nobel Prize for literature in 2007 was received by-
A. Doris Lessing
B. Albert Al Gore
C. Mohammad Yunus
D. None of these
Ans (A)


11. Meteorites are the heavenly bodies
A. between the Mars and the Jupiter
B. between the Saturn and the Neptune
C. between the Mars and the Venus
D. that burn brightly on entering the EarthaE?s atmosphere
Ans (D)


12. P-5 is a group of
A. highly developed countries
B. Highly populous countries
C. Permanent members of the Security Council
D. Established nuclear powers
Ans (C)


13. Arrange the following in chronological order:
a. Dandi March
b. McDonald Award
c. Hanging of Bhagat Singh
d. Meerut conspiracy case
A. a, b, c, d
B. b, a, c, d
C. d, c, a, b,
D. d, a, c, b
Ans (A)


14. Which of the following is a land-locked state?
A. Gujarat
B. Andhra Pradesh
C. Madhya Pradesh
D. Tamil Nadu
Ans (C)


15. Which of the following is not an official language as per the 8th schedule?
A. Konkani
B. Sindhi
C. Manipuri
D. English
Ans (D)


16. Which of the following used in making computer chips ?
A. Carbon
B. Uranium
C. Silicon
D. Rubidium
Ans (C)


17. In order to see an undersea object while in a ship, you would make use of a
A. telescope
B. periscope
C. marinoscope
D None of these
Ans (B)


18. Baan Ki-moon , the UNO Secretary-General belong to
A. Saudi Arab
B. Egypt
C. South Korea
D. Brazil
Ans (C)


19. The deepest ocean in the world is
A. The Indian ocean
B. The Atlantic ocean
C. The Pacific ocean
D. None of these
Ans (C)


20. The oldest mutual fund in India is the
A. SBI Mutual Fund
B. BOB Mutual Fund
C. PNB Mutual Fund
D. Unit Trust of India
Ans (D)


21. A candidate for elections to the Lok Sabha stands to lose his Deposit Money if he fails to get
A. 1/5 of the total valid votes
B. 1/8 of the valid votes
C. 1/6 of the valid votes polled
D. none of these
Ans (A)


22. The VaranasiaE"Kanyakumari National Highway is called
A. N.H. aE" 8
B. N. H. aE" 7
C. N.H. aE" 12
D. N.H. aE" 9
Ans (B)


23. Which of the following areas of output is witnessing a new revolution?
A. oilseeds
B. fisheries
C. fruits
D. cereals
Ans (A)


24. The W.T.O. came into being on
A. 1st April, 1995
B. 1st April, 1994
C. 1st Jan., 1995
D. 1st Jan., 1996
Ans (C)


25. Bangal was partitioned during the viceroyalty of
A. Lord Rippon
B. Lord Curzon
C. Lord Hardinge
D. Lord Minto
Ans (B)


26. Tata purchased Jaguar and Rover from-
A. Hyundai
B. Maruti-Suzuki
C. Ford Motor
D. General Motor
Ans (C)


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General Knowledge Solved Model Paper (World Geography)

General Knowledge Solved Model Paper (World Geography)

Question 1: Identify the climatic type which has cool summer (10 Ÿ C to 15 Ÿ C) and cold winter (0 Ÿ C to 5 Ÿ C) and rainfall throughout the year with no dry season


1. Df
2. Cw
3. Cs
4. Cf
5.
Correct Answer: 4.


Question 2: Which one of the following latitudes forms a Great Circle?

1. 0 degree
2. 23-1/2 degree
3. 66-1/2 degree
4. 90 degree
5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 3: Which of the following statements is/are correct? (1) The Russian platform is an extensive natural lowland. (2) The scandinavian Mountains were formed during the cambrian period. (3) Columbia-Snake plateau consists mainly of volcanic formations. (4) The Atlas Mountains are of Alpine orogeny.

1. 1, 2, 3, 4
2. 1, 2, 3
3. 1, 3, 4
4. 2, 3, 4
5.
Correct Answer: 3.


Question 4: Large areas in India are subjected to considerable rainfall variability. Rainfall variability is likely to be the greates in areas of

1. Very high rainfall
2. High rainfall
3. Medium rainfall
4. Very low rainfall
5.
Correct Answer: 3.


Question 5: Which of the following is NOT correctly matched?

1. Folkland Current - East coast of South America
2. Renell Current - Bay of Biscay
3. Irminger current - East coast of Greenland
4. Cayenne Current - East coast of Africa
5.
Correct Answer: 4.


Question 6: The Pacific Ocean was named so by

1. Bartholomew Diaz
2. Magellan
3. Vasco da Gama
4. Columbus
5.
Correct Answer: 3.


Question 7: Which type of forest belt supplies most of the world's requirement of news print?

1. Evergreen forest
2. Deciduous forest
3. Coniferous forest
4. Mediterranean forest
5.
Correct Answer: 2.


Question 8: Harvard Medical School is located in

1. Houston
2. Boston
3. New York
4. Texas
5.
Correct Answer: 2.


Question 9: The hunting and gathering economy can support only

1. 1 person per sq. km
2. 3 persons per sq. km
3. 5 persons per sq. km
4. 7 persons per sq. km
5.
Correct Answer: 4.


Question 10: The tropical cyclone of the Bay of Bengal are usually called

1. Hurricanes
2. Typhoons
3. Depression
4. Tornadoes
5.
Correct Answer: 3.


Question 11: Which one of the following is not a correct example of tropical cyclones?

1. Tornado
2. Typhoons
3. Hurricanes
4. Northwesters
5.
Correct Answer: 4.


Question 12: The first research project programme which focused on the El Nino u Southern Oscillation and its predictability was called

1. Climate Variability and Perdictability (CLIVAR)
2. Global Energy and Water Cycle Experiment (GEWEX)
3. Global Change and Terrestrial Ecosystem (GCTE)
4. Tropical Ocean and Global Atmosphere (TOGA)
5.
Correct Answer: 3.


Question 13: Where is the headquarters of WTO located

1. Hague
2. New Delhi
3. Geneva
4. New York
5.
Correct Answer: 3.


Question 14: The Suez Canal shortened the distance between India and Europe by:

1. 4000 km
2. 5000 km
3. 6000 km
4. 7000 km
5.
Correct Answer: 4.


Question 15: The shift of aluminium industry from the Dneiper region to Siberia was made possible because of

1. Exploration of new bauxite sources
2. Development of hydroelectricity
3. New favourable market location
4. Development of efficient transportation
5.
Correct Answer: 2.


Question 16: Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

1. Szechwan Basin : Petroleum
2. Hainan region : Iron ore
3. Shansi region : Coal
4. Shensi region : Tin
5.
Correct Answer: 4.


Question 17: Which country ranks top in the mining of gold?

1. India
2. South Africa
3. U.S.A.
4. Canada
5.
Correct Answer: 2.


Question 18: The behavioural environment is meant by

1. Reality as it exists in nature
2. The decision based on reasoned thought
3. Man's behaviour as a function of the environment
4. Reality as is perceived by individuals
5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 19: Which place in the world is called as "Land of mid-night Sun"?

1. Bangladesh
2. Norway
3. South Africa
4. Japan
5.
Correct Answer: 2.


Question 20: Which sea has been called the incubator of western civilization?

1. Black Sea
2. Mediterranean Sea
3. North Sea
4. Red Sea
5.
Correct Answer: 2.


Question 21: what is the largest ocean in the world?

1. Atlantic
2. pacific
3. Arctic
4. Indian ocean
5.
Correct Answer: 2.


Question 22: Mecca is located in

1. Saudi Arabia
2. Baharin
3. UAE
4. Qatar
5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 23: Which one of the following is included in the World List of Biosphere Reserves by UNESCO?

1. Kinnaur Region
2. Spiti Valley
3. Nallamalai Hills
4. Sundererbans
5.
Correct Answer: 4.


Question 24: Peru is the -------country in South America.

1. third largest
2. largest
3. 2nd largest
4. 4th largest
5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 25: Which one of the following statements is not correct about Netherlands?

1. It is the most densely populated country in Western Europe
2. It is an efficient dairy u producer in the European Community
3. It depends heavily on the imports of livestock feed
4. It is the largest exporter of butter in the world
5.
Correct Answer: 4.


Question 26: Which City is Known as "City of Canals"?

1. Mexico
2. Venece
3. Damascus
4. Detroit
5.
Correct Answer: 2.


Question 27: The layer of atmosphere which provides ideal flying conditions for largest jet aeroplane is

1. Troposphere
2. Stratosphere
3. Ionosphere
4. Exosphere
5.
Correct Answer: 2.


Question 28: Which city once known as "Forbidden City"?

1. Nippon
2. Greenland
3. Peking
4. Detroit
5.
Correct Answer: 3.


Question 29: Which one of the following pairs is NOT correctly matched?

1. Rotameter : used for measuring distances on maps
2. Planimeter : used for measuring areas on maps
3. Pantograph : used for reduction of maps
4. Ediograph : used for measuring volumes
5.
Correct Answer: 4.


Question 30: Who is the Managing Director IMF?

1. Rodrigo Rato
2. Dominique Strauss-Kahn
3. Daniel Vasella
4. Alberto Foutana
5.
Correct Answer: 2.


Question 31: What is the capital of Australia?

1. Sydney
2. Melbourne
3. Caneberra
4. Perth
5.
Correct Answer: 3.


Question 32: Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer: List-I (Tribe) List-II (Country) A. Chukchi 1. Indonesia B. Dayak 2. Mexico C. Lacandon 3. Russia D. Lese 4. Zaire

1. A-3 B-1 C-4 D-2
2. A-1 B-3 C-2 D-4
3. A-3 B-1 C-2 D-4
4. A-1 B-3 C-4 D-2
5.
Correct Answer: 3.


Question 33: Tarim Basin of Sinkiang experience strong heat wave causing discomfort during early spring. The wind is popularly known as

1. Karaburan
2. Katabatic
3. Chinook
4. Fohn
5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 34: who was the youngest president of USA

1. Bill Clinton
2. Theodore Roosewelt
3. Abraham Lincoln
4. Barak Obama
5.
Correct Answer: 2.


Question 35: George Mason University is located in

1. Virginia
2. Illinois
3. Texas
4. New York
5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 36: Who of the following revolutionaries set up the United India House in the USA?

1. Ramnath Puri and Vir Savarkar
2. Taraknath Das and G. D. Kumar
3. Lala Hardayal and Bhagat Singh
4. Harnam Singh and Bhagwan Singh
5.
Correct Answer: 2.


Question 37: Capital of Qatar is

1. Doha
2. Riyadh
3. Abu Dhabi
4. Tel Aviv
5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 38: Peru is the -------country in South America.

1. third largest
2. largest
3. 2nd largest
4. 4th largest
5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 39: Which one of the following natural regions is not correctly matched with its economic base?

1. Canadian Prairies : Spring wheat cultivation
2. Argentine Pampas : Beef cattle ranching
3. Australian Downs : Normadic herding
4. South African Veld : Maize growing
5.
Correct Answer: 3.


Question 40: Baylor College of Medicine is located in

1. Houston
2. Boston
3. Illinois
4. Texas
5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 41: On July 6, 2003, UNESCO designated ------ as "World Heritage Site"

1. Tel Aviv
2. Doha
3. Dubai
4. Abu Dhabi
5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 42: Who are Red Indians?

1. The old tribals of South India
2. Tribal inhabitants of Africa
3. Original inhabitants of America
4. None of these
5.
Correct Answer: 3.


Question 43: The maximum length of a day on the poles is?

1. 12 hours
2. 24 hours
3. 3 months
4. 6 months
5.
Correct Answer: 4.


Question 44: A place having an average annual temperature of 27 Degree centigrade and an annual rainfall of over 200 cms,could be

1. Moscow
2. Singapore
3. Nagpur
4. Teheran
5.
Correct Answer: 2.


Question 45: The transition zone between two Ecosystem is called

1. Biome
2. Biotope
3. Ecotone
4. Sere
5.
Correct Answer: 3.


Question 46: The climatic region with high temperature ,high relative humidity and low range of temperature is

1. Mediterranean
2. Monsoon
3. Savanna
4. Equatorial
5.
Correct Answer: 4.


Question 47: Which is the lowest waterbody on earth?

1. Black sea
2. Dead sea
3. Aral sea
4. Red sea
5.
Correct Answer: 2.


Question 48: Johns Hopkins University is located at

1. Baltimore
2. Texas
3. Illinois
4. Boston
5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 49: Match List I with List II and select the correct code given below: List- I List- II (Waterfall) (Mode of Formation) (A) Kaieteur Falls (1) Hanging Valley Fall: (B) Living stone Falls (2) Caprock Fall (C) Yosemite Falls (3) Plateau Fall (D) Victoria Falls (4) Fault Line Scarp Fall
Code A B C D

1. 4 1 2 3
2. 4 2 1 3
3. 3 2 1 4
4. 3 1 2 4
5.
Correct Answer: 4.


Question 50: Greenwich Mean Time is the local time of

1. 180 degree longitude
2. 80 degree west longitude
3. 0 degree longitude
4. 80 degree East longitude
5.
Correct Answer: 3.


Question 51: Ratzel's work was based on the concept

1. There is a dichotomy between physical and cultural aspects of geography
2. Geography is a scientific discipline
3. Physical environment controlled human activities
4. Geography is necessarily descriptive
5.
Correct Answer: 3.


Question 52: Peru is a country located in

1. Western South America
2. Eastern South America
3. Southern South America
4. North part of South America
5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 53: For his model of industrial location, Weber makes use of

1. Isogons
2. Isophenes
3. Isodapanes
4. Isotachs
5.
Correct Answer: 3.


Question 54: The natural region which holds the Indian sub-continent is

1. Equatorial Climate Region
2. Mediterranean
3. Monsoon
4. Hot region
5.
Correct Answer: 3.


Question 55: Identify the correct sequence of the given processes regarding rainfall :

1. Unsaturated air, condensation, dew point, precipitation
2. Dew point, condensation, unsaturated air, precipitation
3. Unsaturated air, dew point, condensation, precipitation
4. Dew point, precipitation, condensation, unsaturated air
5.
Correct Answer: 3.


Question 56: Which is highest waterfall in the world?

1. Niagara
2. Angels
3. Jog FAlls
4. Thrimbika falls
5.
Correct Answer: 2.


Question 57: Which one of the following concepts is associated with Vidal de La Blache?

1. Determinism
2. Possibilism
3. Environmentalism
4. Probabilism
5.
Correct Answer: 2.


Question 58: Warm dry winds blowing down the east slopes of Rockies are known as

1. Fohn
2. Chinooh
3. Mistral
4. Northwesters
5.
Correct Answer: 2.


Question 59: Hawaiion islands are located in

1. North Altantic Ocean
2. South Atlantic Ocean
3. North Pacific Ocean
4. South Pacific Ocean
5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 60: Which country is an international leader in fishing, producing nearly 10 percent of the world's fish catch?

1. Peru
2. Holland
3. NewZealand
4. Australia
5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 61: An approach of reasoning from particular to general is known as

1. Positivist
2. Normative
3. Inductive
4. Deductive
5.
Correct Answer: 3.


Question 62: Which country's highest peak is Mt Ararat?

1. China
2. Turkey
3. Singapore
4. Italy
5.
Correct Answer: 2.


Question 63: Huntington is noted for describing

1. Man as a product of the earth's surface
2. The evolution of landforms
3. The effects of climate on human life
4. The historical-ecological study of the cultural landscape
5.
Correct Answer: 3.


Question 64: The contrast in economic development between Israel and the other South-West Asian countries is due to

1. Desertic conditions of other countries
2. Mineral wealth of Israel
3. Irrigation facilities available in Israel
4. High-technology revolution in Israel
5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 65: Which one of the following sites of the Indus valley Civilization had an ancient dockyard?

1. Kalibangan
2. LothaI
3. Rangpur
4. Harappa
5.
Correct Answer: 2.


Question 66: Which one of the following creature did come to the earth first?

1. Man
2. Ape Man
3. Fish
4. Monkey
5.
Correct Answer: 3.


Question 67: Who reached the North Pole first ?
Who reached the North Pole first ?

1. captain Ronald Amundson
2. captain Ronald Amriego
3. Captain Rossario
4. None
5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 68: Which one is the largest island of world?

1. England
2. Australia
3. Japan
4. New Guinea
5.
Correct Answer: 4.


Question 69: Which one of the following statements explains that mining is "an increasing cost" economic activity?

1. Mine workers enhance their wages
2. Best and most easily available mineral deposits are mined first
3. Mining techniques becomes expensive
4. Mining royalties increase
5.
Correct Answer: 4.


Question 70: What man made construction on earth visible from the moon with naked eye?

1. China Wall
2. Egypt Pyramids
3. Statue of Liberty
4. Eifle Tower
5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 71: An early statement of Geography as Chorology was provided by

1. Kant
2. Humboldt
3. Ritter
4. Varenius
5.
Correct Answer: 2.


Question 72: Which one of the following scholars was the first to divide the world landmass into three continents : Europe, Asia and Libya (Africa)?

1. Anaximander
2. Hecataeus
3. Herodotus
4. Eratoshenes
5.
Correct Answer: 3.


Question 73: The exposed batholithic domes that have suffered intense fracture because of removal of the super incumbent load, resulting into massive joint are termed as-

1. Cuesta
2. Tors
3. Hogbacks
4. Mesa
5.
Correct Answer: 2.


Question 74: The correct sequence of the natural regions of Brazil from north to south is

1. Amazon Basin, Mato Grosso Plateau, Brazilian Highlands, Campos
2. Amazon Basin, Brazilian Highlands, Campos, Mato Grosso Plateau
3. Brazilian Highlands, Mato Grosso Plateau, Amazon Basin, Campos
4. Mato Grosso Plateau, Campos, Brazilian Highlands, Amazon Basin
5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 75: In the Northern hemisphere,the wind blowing from the Horse Latitudes to the Doldrums is called?

1. Westerly Wind
2. Trade Wind
3. Polar Easterly
4. Jet Stream
5.
Correct Answer: 2.


Question 76: Kathiawar Peninsula is an example of

1. Emerged shoreline
2. Submerged shoreline
3. Ria shoreline
4. Dalmatian shoreline
5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 77: Which one of the following is located in Russia?

1. Donetsk
2. Krivoirog
3. Zhitomir
4. Pechora
5.
Correct Answer: 4.


Question 78: How many hours of daylight does the equator experience on September equinox?

1. 8 hours
2. 9 hours
3. 10 hours
4. 12 hours
5.
Correct Answer: 4.


Question 79: The Mobility Transition Model of Migration was propounded by

1. Clark, W.A.V.
2. Lee, E.
3. Ravenstein, E. G.
4. Zelinsky, W.
5.
Correct Answer: 4.


Question 80: The percentage of radiant energy, reflected back by a surface is called

1. Albedo
2. Greenhouse effect
3. Insolation
4. Refraction
5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 81: Which was the last continent to be discovered by Europeans?

1. Antarctica
2. Greenland
3. Oceania/Australia
4. South America
5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 82: Which among the following is a land locked sea?

1. Timor sea
2. Arafura Sea
3. Greenland Sea
4. Aral Sea
5.
Correct Answer: 4.


Question 83: "The Inverse Distance Law" of migration of Population was propounded by:

1. D. J. Bouge.
2. S. Stouffer
3. G. K. Ziph
4. E. G. Ravenstein
5.
Correct Answer: 4.


Question 84: Which is the world's smallest ocean?

1. Atlantic
2. Antarctic
3. Arctic
4. Indian
5.
Correct Answer: 3.


Question 85: In the Newling model on urban population density distribution, the term 'Density Crater' is applied to

1. Central Business District
2. High income residential area
3. Suburb
4. Zone in Transition
5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 86: In A.D.the eruption of which volcano destroyed Pompeii?

1. Mt Vesuvius
2. Mt Etna
3. Stramboli Island
4. Mt Kilimanjaro
5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 87: Lava cools down is fissures and solidifies to give

1. Locolith
2. Sill
3. Dyke
4. None of the above
5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 88: In which one of the following areas of South u East Asia, is there the largest concentration of peasant population ?

1. In areas of shifting cultivation
2. On island areas where grain farming is carried on
3. On highland areas where the climate is cooler and healthier
4. On cleared lowland forest areas
5.
Correct Answer: 2.


Question 89: The International Date line is located in the

1. Pacific Ocean
2. Atlantic Ocean
3. Indian Ocean
4. Arctic Ocean
5.
Correct Answer: 3.


Question 90: The layer of the water in the oceans that separates the warmer surface layer from the deeper cold layer is called.

1. Hypotherm
2. Thermocline
3. Epiliminion
4. Hypsotherm
5.
Correct Answer: 2.


Question 91: Which of the following deltas is the biggest in the world?

1. The delta of Missisipi river
2. The delta of Kaveri river
3. The Sundarbans
4. The Danuble Delta
5.
Correct Answer: 3.


Question 92: A person moving from Chile to Brazil along the coast has to cross

1. Bass Strait
2. Cook Strait
3. Magellan Strait
4. Torres strait
5.
Correct Answer: 3.


Question 93: The Colby hypothesis offers a dynamic explanation of

1. Urban development
2. Landuse development
3. Sustainable development
4. Rural development
5.
Correct Answer: 1.


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If u want to share ur knowledge,any article or any solved question paper here then mail us at:- Rajnesh95@gmail.com

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Tips to Reduce Negative Marking In Exams..

>>Every candidate taking up bank or ssc exams for the first time are more concerned about Negative marks.Negative marks in bank exams are awarded to each and every wrong answer,which ranges from 0.25 - 0.50 marks .If you still have no clue on how to steer clear without negative marks,proceed reading to know about the do`s & don'ts .

What you must do to minimize negative marks ?

# Analyze the Question paper in advance by referring previous question papers.This helps to get a clear picture of the type of questions in each section.For this, previous question papers or question paper blueprints would help in knowing the pattern

# Practice is the only key.Since most bank exams expect you to complete 120-150 questions in 3 hours,its necessary for the candidates to figure out short-cut methods,easy problem solving skills so that precious time could be saved.

# Try attending mock tests using sample ban k exam question papers,which will help to decide on the amount of time needed to answer each question. Time Management is the most needed skill to answer all the questions in time.

# Prepare short notes of your preparations,formula s,important theorems etc.,so you can refer to it during the last minute preparation rather than reading the books.

# Be cool & calm while writing the exam.Getting tensed on an unknown question or hurrying to complete the exam soon, contribute to negative marks largely.

# Answer the questions that you are confident of being correct ,rather than getting stuck with a question & wasting time trying to answer it.

# Do not guess until you are very sure of the answer.Guessing can drastically reduce the marks without your knowing.

# Do not erase or overwrite frequently .Since the OMR sheets are read by computers, any improper erasing marks will be calculated as wrong answers,leading to negative marks.
In an attempt to avoid negative marks,don' t skip all the unknown questions. Take calculated risks & thinkof the nearest answer,since there is no success without risks

~ ~ ~ ~ ~ ~ ~ ~ ~ ~ ~ ~~ ~ ~ ~ ~ ~
~ ~ ~ ~ ~ ~ ~ ~ ~ ~ ~ ~~ ~ ~ ~ ~ ~
- This post has been shared by one of Our Reader-
If u want to share ur knowledge,any article or any solved question paper here then mail us at:- Rajnesh95@gmail.com

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ANALYTICAL AND VERBAL REASONING FOR VARIOUS EXAMS #1

ANALYTICAL AND VERBAL REASONING FOR VARIOUS EXAMS
1. six members of a familyare travelling these are a,b,c,d,e, and f. b isthe son of c but c is not mothers of b. a and c are a married couple, e is the brother of c. d is the daughter of a. f is the brother of b.
who is the wife of e:
(a) a
(b)f
(c)b
(d) cant be determined
2.six members of a familyare travelling these are a,b,c,d,e, and f. b isthe son of c but c is not mothers of b. a and c are a married couple, e is the brother of c. d is the daughter of a. f is the brother of b.
which of following is pair of female
(a)ae
(b)bd
(c)df
(d)ad
3. six members of a familyare travelling these are a,b,c,d,e, and f. b isthe son of c but c is not mothers of b. a and c are a married couple, e is the brother of c. d is the daughter of a. f is the brother of b.
how is e related to d:
(a) father
(b)brother
(c)uncle
(d)none of these
4.there is a group of five teachers a,b,c,d and e
- b and c teaches maths and geography
- a and c teach maths and history
- b and d teach political science and geofraphy
- d and e tech political science and biology
- e teaches biology, history, and political science
who teaches political science, geography and biology
(a)e
(b)d
(c)c
(d)b
5. there os a group of five teachers a,b,c,d and e
- b and c teaches maths and geography
- a and c teach maths and history
- b and d teach political science and geofraphy
- d and e tech political science and biology
- e teaches biology, history, and political science
who teaches in mathematics, political science and geography:
(a) a
(b)b
(c)d
(d)e
6. there os a group of five teachers a,b,c,d and e
- b and c teaches maths and geography
- a and c teach maths and history
- b and d teach political science and geofraphy
- d and e tech political science and biology
- e teaches biology, history, and political science
who teaches maths, geography and history
(a) c
(b)e
(c)a
(d)b
7. there os a group of five teachers a,b,c,d and e
- b and c teaches maths and geography
- a and c teach maths and history
- b and d teach political science and geofraphy
- d and e tech political science and biology
- e teaches biology, history, and political science
who teaches maths, geography and history
(a) e
(b)a
(c)d
(d)c
8.there os a group of five teachers a,b,c,d and e
- b and c teaches maths and geography
- a and c teach maths and history
- b and d teach political science and geofraphy
- d and e tech political science and biology
- e teaches biology, history, and political science
who teaches political science, history and biology
(a)a
(b)b
(c)c
(d)e
9.1.gita, ravi and suresh are children of. mr. and mrs. khanna
2. renu,raja and sumit are children of mr. and mrs. chopra
3. sumit and gita are married and ashok and sanjay their children
4. garima and ram are children of mr. and mrs. chawla/
5 garima is married to suresh and has three children rata,sonu,raju
how is ravi related to raju
(a)brother
(b)uncle
(c)cousin
(d)maternal uncle
10.1.gita, ravi and suresh are children of. mr. and mrs. khanna
2. renu,raja and sumit are children of mr. and mrs. chopra
3. sumit and gita are married and ashok and sanjay their children
4. garima and ram are children of mr. and mrs. chawla/
5 garima is married to suresh and has three children rata,sonu,raju
how ravi related to ashok
(a)maternal uncle
(b)cousin
(c)brother in law
(d)father in law
11.1.gita, ravi and suresh are children of. mr. and mrs. khanna
2. renu,raja and sumit are children of mr. and mrs. chopra
3. sumit and gita are married and ashok and sanjay their children
4. garima and ram are children of mr. and mrs. chawla/
5 garima is married to suresh and has three children rata,sonu,raju
how is ram related to suresh:
(a)brother
(b)cousin
(c)uncle
(d)brother in law
12. 1.gita, ravi and suresh are children of. mr. and mrs. khanna
2. renu,raja and sumit are children of mr. and mrs. chopra
3. sumit and gita are married and ashok and sanjay their children
4. garima and ram are children of mr. and mrs. chawla/
5 garima is married to suresh and has three children rata,sonu,raju
what is the surname of sanjay:
(a) chawla
(b) chopra
(c) khanna
(d) suresh
13. 1.gita, ravi and suresh are children of. mr. and mrs. khanna
2. renu,raja and sumit are children of mr. and mrs. chopra
3. sumit and gita are married and ashok and sanjay their children
4. garima and ram are children of mr. and mrs. chawla/
5 garima is married to suresh and has three children rata,sonu,raju
how is ram related to rita:
(a) brother
(b) uncle
(c) maternal uncle
(d) cousin
14. 1.gita, ravi and suresh are children of. mr. and mrs. khanna
2. renu,raja and sumit are children of mr. and mrs. chopra
3. sumit and gita are married and ashok and sanjay their children
4. garima and ram are children of mr. and mrs. chawla/
5 garima is married to suresh and has three children rata,sonu,raju
renu is sanjay's ----------
(a) sister
(b)sister in law
(c)aunty
(d)cousin
15. 1.gita, ravi and suresh are children of. mr. and mrs. khanna
2. renu,raja and sumit are children of mr. and mrs. chopra
3. sumit and gita are married and ashok and sanjay their children
4. garima and ram are children of mr. and mrs. chawla/
5 garima is married to suresh and has three children rata,sonu,raju
raju's sur name is:
(a) chawla
(b)khanna
(c)chopra
(d)none of these
16. 1.gita, ravi and suresh are children of. mr. and mrs. khanna
2. renu,raja and sumit are children of mr. and mrs. chopra
3. sumit and gita are married and ashok and sanjay their children
4. garima and ram are children of mr. and mrs. chawla/
5 garima is married to suresh and has three children rata,sonu,raju
sumit and suresh are related as:
(a) brother in law
(b)cousin
(c)brother
(d)uncle
17. 1.gita, ravi and suresh are children of. mr. and mrs. khanna
2. renu,raja and sumit are children of mr. and mrs. chopra
3. sumit and gita are married and ashok and sanjay their children
4. garima and ram are children of mr. and mrs. chawla/
5 garima is married to suresh and has three children rata,sonu,raju
how sonu related to ravi.
(a) brother
(b)brother in law
(c)nephew
(d)father
18.1.gita, ravi and suresh are children of. mr. and mrs. khanna
2. renu,raja and sumit are children of mr. and mrs. chopra
3. sumit and gita are married and ashok and sanjay their children
4. garima and ram are children of mr. and mrs. chawla/
5 garima is married to suresh and has three children rata,sonu,raju
how garima is related to mr. & mrs. khanna:
(a)daughter
(b)neice
(c)sister in law
(d)daughter in law
19. 1.gita, ravi and suresh are children of. mr. and mrs. khanna
2. renu,raja and sumit are children of mr. and mrs. chopra
3. sumit and gita are married and ashok and sanjay their children
4. garima and ram are children of mr. and mrs. chawla/
5 garima is married to suresh and has three children rata,sonu,raju
how ashok and sanjay are lated to mr. mrs. copra:
(a)sons
(b)nephews
(c)grand son
(d)none of these
20. in the office amongst staff a,b,c,d,e of g. h there is only computer. a programe has to be made and can be made by only one person at a time. the office has 3 shifts, the morning shift from 6 am-12 am has 3 staff, afternoon shift from 12am. to 6 pm. has 3 staff, evening shift from 6 pm to 12 pm has 2 staff one of the person did not used a printer:
1 b is the last person who use the computer
2 h use the computer after a and came iwth a
3 d used the computer after h and come with h but before e
4 c used the computer before b but arrived after e
5 a use the computer before f and arrived before g
if g used a computer justbefore c who use 4:
(a) a
(b)b
(c)e
(d)d
21. in the office amongst staff a,b,c,d,e of g. h there is only computer. a programe has to be made and can be made by only one person at a time. the office has 3 shifts, the morning shift from 6 am-12 am has 3 staff, afternoon shift from 12am. to 6 pm. has 3 staff, evening shift from 6 pm to 12 pm has 2 staff one of the person did not used a printer:
1 b is the last person who use the computer
2 h use the computer after a and came iwth a
3 d used the computer after h and come with h but before e
4 c used the computer before b but arrived after e
5 a use the computer before f and arrived before g
who arethe person in the night shift.
(a)f g
(b)f e
(c)b e
(d)b c
22. in the office amongst staff a,b,c,d,e of g. h there is only computer. a programe has to be made and can be made by only one person at a time. the office has 3 shifts, the morning shift from 6 am-12 am has 3 staff, afternoon shift from 12am. to 6 pm. has 3 staff, evening shift from 6 pm to 12 pm has 2 staff one of the person did not used a printer:
1 b is the last person who use the computer
2 h use the computer after a and came iwth a
3 d used the computer after h and come with h but before e
4 c used the computer before b but arrived after e
5 a use the computer before f and arrived before g
who use the 2nd computer
(a) a
(b)h
(c)d
(d)e
23. in the office amongst staff a,b,c,d,e of g. h there is only computer. a programe has to be made and can be made by only one person at a time. the office has 3 shifts, the morning shift from 6 am-12 am has 3 staff, afternoon shift from 12am. to 6 pm. has 3 staff, evening shift from 6 pm to 12 pm has 2 staff one of the person did not used a printer:
1 b is the last person who use the computer
2 h use the computer after a and came iwth a
3 d used the computer after h and come with h but before e
4 c used the computer before b but arrived after e
5 a use the computer before f and arrived before g
who are the person in the morning shift
(a) hec
(b)ahd
(c)efg
(d)dec
24. in the office amongst staff a,b,c,d,e of g. h there is only computer. a programe has to be made and can be made by only one person at a time. the office has 3 shifts, the morning shift from 6 am-12 am has 3 staff, afternoon shift from 12am. to 6 pm. has 3 staff, evening shift from 6 pm to 12 pm has 2 staff one of the person did not used a printer:
1 b is the last person who use the computer
2 h use the computer after a and came iwth a
3 d used the computer after h and come with h but before e
4 c used the computer before b but arrived after e
5 a use the computer before f and arrived before g
who takes first computer
(a) a
(b)h
(c)d
(d)e
25. seven persons p,q,r,s,t,u,v and w are to be assigned seven adjacent chambers on the same floor in a apartment according to following conditions:
1 u is assigned as far away from r as t is
2 p and r prefer to have adjacent chanmbers
3 v will have to be assigned chamber no. 5
4 q;s work requirs him to speak on phone frequently through out the day.
5 p, s and t all smoke. v is allergic to toacco smoke and must have non smoker in the chamber ajjacent own.
6 unless otherwise specified all employeed maintain silence in their chambers.
the best location of s in on the floor is:
(a)2
(b)3
(c)4
(d)7
Answers:
1 d 2 d 3 c 4 b 5 b 6 c
7 d 8 d 9 b 10 a 11 d 12 b
13 c 14 c 15 b 16 a 17 c 18 d
19 c 20 c 21 d 22 b 23 b 24 a 25 a

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Aptitutde Practice Set #3

1. A clock shows the time as 6 a.m. If the minute hand gains 2 minutes every hour, how many minutes will the clock gain by 9 p.m.?

(a) 30 minutes

(b) 25 minutes

(c) 28 minutes

(d) 34 minutes

2. Find the right number, from the given options, at the place marked by the question mark: 2, 4, 8, 32, 256, ?

(a) 4096

(b) 8192

(c) 512

(d) 1024

3. Find the number missing at question mark:

10, 11, 23, 39, 64, ?, 149

(a) 100

(b) 103

(c) 78

(d) 128

4. A super fast bus of KSRTC starting from ‘Trivandrum’ and reaches ‘Attingal’ in 45 minutes with an average speed of 40 km/hr. If the speed is increased by 10 km/hr how much time it will take to cover the same distance?

(a) 34 minutes (b) 36 minutes (c) 38 minutes (d) 40 minutes

5. The difference between 6 times and 8 times of a figure is 14. What is the figure?

(a) 12 (b) 9 (c) 7 (d) 6

6. If 92y = 36 what is 9y?

(a) 4 (b) 6 (c) 9 (d) 18

7. One fourth percent of 180 is:

(a) 4.5 (b) 0.45 (c) 0.045 (d) 45

8. A candidate appearing for an examination has to secure 40% marks to pass paper I. But he secured only 40 marks and failed by 20 marks. What is the maximum mark for paper I?

(a) 100 (b) 200 (c) 180 (d) 150

9. Find the missing number 32, 52, 74, 112, 135 ……………

(a) 16 (b) 15 (c) 17 (d) 14

10. If 250 is increased to 300, what is the percentage increase?

(a) 16.67 (b) 20 (c) 23 (d) 17

11. The ratio of 9 seconds to 10 hours is ………….

(a) 1:40 (b) 1:4000 (c) 9:10 (d) 1:400

12. A person lost 10% when he sold goods at Rs.153. For how much should he sell them to gain 20%?

(a) 204 (b) 250 (c) 240 (d) 210

13. What will be xy if 7862xy is to be divisible by 125?

(a) 25 (b) 00 (c) 75 (d) 50

14. A train of 100 meters long is running at the speed of 36 km per hour. In what time it passes a bridge of 80 meters long?

(a) 30 seconds (b) 36 seconds (c) 20 seconds (d) 18 seconds

15. If two-third of a bucket is filled in one minute then the time taken to fill the bucket completely will be …….

(a) 90 seconds (b) 70 seconds (c) 60 seconds (d) 100 seconds

16. If a quarter kilogram costs Rs. 60 then how much will cost for 150 grams?

(a) Rs. 30 (b) Rs. 24 (c) Rs. 36 (d) Rs. 40

17. If 3 men or 6 boys can do a piece of work in 20 days then how many days with 6 men and 8 boys take to do the same work?

(a) 5 (b) 8 (c) 10 (d) 6

18. Find the sum of first 100 natural numbers

(a) 5050 (b) 5005 (c) 9900 (d) 9050

19. Two poles of height 6 meters and 11 meters stand on a plane ground. If the distance between their feet is 12 meters then find the difference in the distance between their tops:

(a) 12m (b) 5m (c) 13m (d) 11m

20. How many balls of radius 4 cm can be made from a solid sphere of lead of radius 8 cm?

(a) 4 (b) 8 (c) 16 (d) 2

21. The solution to x2 +6x+9 = 0 is ……..

(a) x1 = + 3, x2 = -3 (b) x1 = 3, x2 = 3

(c) x1 = -3, x2 = -3 (d) No solution

22. What is the chance of getting a 2 or 4 in rolling a die?

(a) 2/3 (b) 1/6 (c) 1/3 (d) 1/2

23. At what rate of simple interest per annum an amount will be doubled in 10 years?

(a) 10% (b) 7.5% (c) 16% (d) 15%

24. Five times an unknown number is 5 less than 50. The unknown number

(a) 10 (b) 11 (c) 9 (d) 5

25. The acute angle between the hour hand and minute hand of a clock at 4 PM

(a) 900 (b) 1200 (c) 1500 (d) 2400

26. Water is filled in a cylindrical vessel in such a way that its volume doubles after every five minutes. If it takes 30 minutes for the vessel to be full, then the vessel will be one fourth full in

(a) 20 minute (b) 25 minutes

(c) 7 minutes 30 seconds (d) 10 minutes

27. If 10 cats can kill 10 rats in 10 minutes how long will it take 100 cats to kill 100 rats

(a) 1 minutes (b) 10 minute (c) 100 minutes (d) 10000 minutes

28. If 75 % of a number is added to 75, the result is the number itself, then the number is:

(a) 250 (b) 750 (c) 400 (d) 300

29. A school has enough food for 400 children for 12 days. How long will the food last if 80 more children join them?

(a) 6 days (b) 7 days (c) 10 days (d) 8 days

30. The sum of two consecutive numbers is 55, which is the largest number?

(a) 25 (b) 28 (c) 26 (d) 27

31. When a shop keeper sold 2/3 of an item, he got the cost price of the whole lot. What is the percentage of his profit?

(a) 33 1/8 % (b) 66 2/3 % (c) 25 % (d) 50 %

32. The perimeter of a rectangular field is 480 meters and the ratio between the length and breadth is 5:3. The area of the field is:

(a) 7,200m2 (b) 15,000m2 (c) 54,000m2 (d) 13,500m2

33. If you add 100 to a certain number, the result will be more than, if you multiply that number by 1000 what is that number?

(a) 1.5 (b) 1.0 (c) 2.5 (d) 2.0

34. A student has to secure 40 % marks to pass. He gets 150 marks and fails by 30 marks. What is the maximum marks?

(a) 400 (b) 500 (c) 475 (d) 450

35. The circumcentre of an obtuse triangle will always be in the

(a) Interior of the triangle

(b) Midpoint of the diameter

(c) Exterior of the triangle

(d) Midpoint of the side of the triangle

36. What is the degree measure of a semicircle?

(a) 360 (b) 90 (c) 270 (d) 180

37. Which among the following is the point of intersection of the medians of a triangle?

(a) Circumcentre (b) Centroid (c) Orthocenter (d) Incentre

38. The height of a cone and its base diameter are equal. If the base radius is ‘r’ what is its slant height?

(a) 3r (b) 4r (c) v5r (d) v3r

39. The radii of two spheres are in the ratio 2:3. What is the ratio of their surface areas?

(a) 4:9 (b) 2:3 (c) 8:27 (d) 4:6

40. What is the common ratio of the progression 3v2, 6, 6v2 ?

(a) 3 (b) 2 (c) v2 (d) v3

41. In class of 100 students 50 students passed in Mathematics and 70 passed in English, 5 students failed in both Mathematics and English. How many students passed in both the subjects?

(a) 25 (b) 30 (c) 50 (d) 45

42. Speed of a boat in still water is 9 km/hr. It goes 12 km down stream and comes back to the starting point in three hours.What is the speed of water in the stream?

(a) 3 km/hr (b) 4 km/hr (c) 4.5 km/hr (d) 5 km/hr

43. A student was asked to add 16 and subtract 10 from a number.He by mistake added 10 and subtracted 16. If his answer is 14 what is the correct answer?

(a) 20 (b) 26 (c) 30 (d) 32

44. Find the area of a right angled triangle whose hypotenuse is 10 cm and base 8 cm.

(a) 48 sq.cm (b) 34 sq.cm (c) 24 sq.cm (d) 42 sq.cm

45. Find the next term of the series: 3, 6, 9, 18, 27, 54, ……

(a) 81 (b) 69 (c) 63 (d) 57

46. A number consists of 20 plus 20% of its value. The number is:

(a) 20 (b) 22 (c) 25 (d) 30

47. 20% of 5 + 5% of 20 =

(a) 5 (b) 2 (c) 6 (d) 21

48. The angle between the minute hand and the hour hand of a clock, when the time is 8.30

(a) 800 (b) 600 (c) 1050 (d) 750

49. Rs. 1581 is divided among A, B and C in the ratio 10 : 15 : 6. What is the share of B?

(a) 306 (b) 765 (c) 700 (d) 510

50. The sum of four consecutive counting numbers is 154. Find the smallest number:
(a) 36 (b) 37 (c) 38 (d) 31
Answers

1 A 11 B 21 C 31 D 41 A

2 B 12 A 22 B 32 D 42 A

3 A 13 D 23 A 33 B 43 B

4 B 14 D 24 C 34 D 44 C

5 C 15 A 25 B 35 C 45 A

6 B 16 C 26 A 36 D 46 C

7 C 17 D 27 B 37 B 47 B

8 D 18 A 28 D 38 C 48 D

9 C 19 C 29 C 39 C 49 B

10 B 20 B 30 B 40 C 50 B

*

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Aptitutde Practice Set #2

1. Two goods train each 500 m long, are running in opposite directions on parallel tracks. Their speeds are 45 km/hr and 30 km/hr respectively. Find the time taken by the slower train to pass the driver of the faster one.

A. 12 sec B. 24 sec C. 48 sec D. 60 sec

Answer: Option B

2. A train 108 m long moving at a speed of 50 km/hr crosses a train 112 m long coming from opposite direction in 6 seconds. The speed of the second train is:

A. 48 km/hr B. 54 km/hr C. 66 km/hr D. 82 km/hr

Answer: Option D

3. Two, trains, one from Howrah to Patna and the other from Patna to Howrah, start simultaneously. After they meet, the trains reach their destinations after 9 hours and 16 hours respectively. The ratio of their speeds is:

A. 2 : 3 B. 4 : 3 C. 6 : 7 D. 9 : 16

Answer: Option B

4. A train travelling at 48 kmph completely crosses another train having half its length and travelling in opposite direction at 42 kmph, in 12 seconds. It also passes a railway platform in 45 seconds. The length of the platform is

A. 400 m B. 450 m C. 560 m D. 600 m

Answer: Option A

5. Two stations A and B are 110 km apart on a staright line. One train starts from A at 7 a.m. and travels towards B at 20 kmph. Another train starts from B at 8 a.m. and travels towards A at a speed of 25 kmph. At what time will they meet?

A. 9 a.m. B. 10 a.m. C. 10.30 a.m. D. 11 a.m.

Answer: Option B

6. A and B together can do a piece of work in 30 days. A having worked for 16 days, B finishes the remaining work alone in 44 days. In how many days shall B finish the whole work alone?

A. 30 days B. 40 days C. 60 days D. 70 days

Answer: Option C

7. A and B can do a work in 8 days, B and C can do the same work in 12 days. A, B and C together can finish it in 6 days. A and C together will do it in :

A. 4 days B. 6 days C. 8 days D. 12 days

Answer: Option C

8. A and B can complete a work in 15 days and 10 days respectively. They started doing the work together but after 2 days B had to leave and A alone completed the remaining work. The whole work was completed in :

A. 8 days B. 10 days C. 12 days D. 15 days

Answer: Option C

9. When a plot is sold for Rs. 18,700, the owner loses 15%. At what price must that plot be sold in order to gain 15%?

A. Rs. 21,000 B. Rs. 22,500 C. Rs. 25,300 D. Rs. 25,800

Answer: Option C

10. A trader mixes 26 kg of rice at Rs. 20 per kg with 30 kg of rice of other variety at Rs. 36 per kg and sells the mixture at Rs. 30 per kg. His profit percent is:

A. No profit, no loss B. 5% C. 8% D. 10% E. None of these

Answer: Option B

11. The percentage profit earned by selling an article for Rs. 1920 is equal to the percentage loss incurred by selling the same article for Rs. 1280. At what price should the article be sold to make 25% profit?

A. Rs. 2000 B. Rs. 2200 C. Rs. 2400 D. Data inadequate

Answer: Option A

12. The present ages of three persons in proportions 4 : 7 : 9. Eight years ago, the sum of their ages was 56. Find their present ages (in years).

A. 8, 20, 28 B. 16, 28, 36 C. 20, 35, 45 D. None of these

Answer: Option B

13. Ayesha’s father was 38 years of age when she was born while her mother was 36 years old when her brother four years younger to her was born. What is the difference between the ages of her parents?

A. 2 years B. 4 years C. 6 years D. 8 years

Answer: Option C

14. Sachin is younger than Rahul by 7 years. If their ages are in the respective ratio of 7 : 9, how old is Sachin?

A. 16 years B. 18 years C. 28 years D. 24.5 years E. None of these

Answer: Option D

15. The average weight of A, B and C is 45 kg. If the average weight of A and B be 40 kg and that of B and C be 43 kg, then the weight of B is:

A. 17 kg B. 20 kg C. 26 kg D. 31 kg

Answer: Option D

16. A pupil’s marks were wrongly entered as 83 instead of 63. Due to that the average marks for the class got increased by half. The number of pupils in the class is:

A. 10 B. 20 C. 40 D. 73

Answer: Option C

17. The captain of a cricket team of 11 members is 26 years old and the wicket keeper is 3 years older. If the ages of these two are excluded, the average age of the remaining players is one year less than the average age of the whole team. What is the average age of the team?

A. 23 years B. 24 years C. 25 years D. None of these

Answer: Option A

18. A train can travel 50% faster than a car. Both start from point A at the same time and reach point B 75 kms away from A at the same time. On the way, however, the train lost about 12.5 minutes while stopping at the stations. The speed of the car is:

A. 100 kmph B. 110 kmph C. 120 kmph D. 130 kmph

Answer: Option C

19. Robert is travelling on his cycle and has calculated to reach point A at 2 P.M. if he travels at 10 kmph, he will reach there at 12 noon if he travels at 15 kmph. At what speed must he travel to reach A at 1 P.M.?

A. 8 kmph B. 11 kmph C. 12 kmph D. 14 kmph

Answer: Option C

20. Albert invested an amount of Rs. 8000 in a fixed deposit scheme for 2 years at compound interest rate 5 p.c.p.a. How much amount will Albert get on maturity of the fixed deposit?

A. Rs. 8600 B. Rs. 8620 C. Rs. 8820 D. None of these

Answer: Option C

21. The compound interest on a certain sum for 2 years at 10% per annum is Rs. 525. The simple interest on the same sum for double the time at half the rate percent per annum is:

A. Rs. 400 B. Rs. 500 C. Rs. 600 D. Rs. 800

Answer: Option B

22. A sum of Rs. 725 is lent in the beginning of a year at a certain rate of interest. After 8 months, a sum of Rs. 362.50 more is lent but at the rate twice the former. At the end of the year, Rs. 33.50 is earned as interest from both the loans. What was the original rate of interest?

A. 3.6% B. 4.5% C. 5% D. 6% E. None of these

Answer: Option E

23. A man took loan from a bank at the rate of 12% p.a. simple interest. After 3 years he had to pay Rs. 5400 interest only for the period. The principal amount borrowed by him was:

A. Rs. 2000 B. Rs. 10,000 C. Rs. 15,000 D. Rs. 20,000

Answer: Option C

24. A starts business with Rs. 3500 and after 5 months, B joins with A as his partner. After a year, the profit is divided in the ratio 2 : 3. What is B’s contribution in the capital?

A. Rs. 7500 B. Rs. 8000 C. Rs. 8500 D. Rs. 9000

Answer: Option D

25. Aman started a business investing Rs. 70,000. Rakhi joined him after six months with an amount of Rs.. 1,05,000 and Sagar joined them with Rs. 1.4 lakhs after another six months. The amount of profit earned should be distributed in what ratio among Aman, Rakhi and Sagar respectively, 3 years after Aman started the business?

A. 7 : 6 : 10 B. 12 : 15 : 16 C. 42 : 45 : 56 D. Cannot be determined

Answer: Option B

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Aptitutde Practice Set #1

1.Study each of the following table and choose the alternative which can best replace the question mark (?)

1 2 3 2 10 12

2 5 12 10 16 13

1 2 1 ? 10 24

(a) 5 (b) 11 (c) 13 (d) 8

Ans (c)

2. Study each of the following table and choose the alternative which can best replace the question mark (?)

3 8 10 2 ? 1

6 56 90 2 20 0

(a) 0 (b) 3 (c) 5 (d) 7

Ans (c)

3.In the following question one term in the number series is wrong. Find out the wrong term.

11, 5, 20, 12, 40, 26, 74, 54

(a) 5 (b) 20 (c) 40 (d) 26

Ans (c)

4. In the following question one term in the number series is wrong. Find out the wrong term.

8, 14, 26, 48, 98, 194, 386

(a) 14 (b) 48 (c) 98 (d) 194

Ans (b)

5. Calculate value of each word by the following formula:

Consonants = (2 Ч Position of the letter in alphabet) – 1

Vowels = (3 Ч Position in alphabet) + 1

CHANGE

(a) 77 (b) 79 (c) 83 (d) 80

Ans (d)

6. Calculate value of each word by the following formula:

Consonants = (2 Ч Position of the letter in alphabet) – 1

Vowels = (3 Ч Position in alphabet) + 1

FLUTE

(a) 153 (b) 157 (c) 151 (d) 149

Ans (a)

7. Calculate value of each word by the following formula:

Consonants = (2 Ч Position of the letter in alphabet) – 1

Vowels = (3 Ч Position in alphabet) + 1

BREAD

(a) 67 (b) 62 (c) 59 (d) 65

Ans (d)

8. In a certain code language, ’3a, 2b, 7c’ means ‘Truth is Eternal’; ’7c, 9a, 8b, 3a’ means ‘Enmity is not Eternal’ and 6a, 4d, 2b, 8b’ means ‘Truth does not perish’. Which of the following means ‘enmity’ in that language?

(a) 3a (b) 7c (c) 8b (d) 9a

Ans (d)

9. In a certain code language, ‘po ki top ma’ means ‘Usha is playing cards’; ‘Kop ja ki ma’ means ‘Asha is playing tennis’; ki top sop ho’ means ‘they are playing football’; and ‘po sur kop’ means ‘cards and tennis’. Which word in that language means ‘Asha’?

(a) ja (b) ma (c) kop (d) top

Ans (a)

10. A girl was born on September 6, 1970, which happened to be a Sunday. Her birthday has again fall on Sunday in

(a) 1975 (b) 1976 (c) 1977 (d) 1981

Ans (d)

11. A long rope has to be cut to make 23 small pieces. If it is double folded to start with how many times does it need to be cut?

(a) 9 (b) 23 (c) 11 (d) 12

Ans (c)

12. There are 19 hockey players in a club. On a particular day 14 were wearing the hockey shirts prescribed, while 11 were wearing the prescribed hockey pants. None of them was without either hockey pants or hockey shirts. How many were in complete hockey uniform?

(a) 8 (b) 6 (c) 9 (d) 7

Ans (b)

13. In a class room three fourth of the boys are above 160 cm in height and they are 18 in number. Also out of the total strength, the boys form only two third and the rest are girls. The total number of girls in the class is

(a) 18 (b) 24 (c) 12 (d) 30

Ans (c)

14. ‘A’ is east of ‘B’ and west of ‘C’. ‘H’ is South-West of ‘C’, ‘B’ is South-East of ‘X’. which is farthest West?

(a) C (b) A (c) X (d) B

Ans (c)


15. A girl earns twice as much in December as in each of the other months. What part of her entire year’s earning does she earn in December?


(a) 2/11 (b) 2/13 (c) 3/14 (d) 1/6

Ans (b)

16. One watch is 1 minute slow at 1 pm on Tuesday and 2 minutes fast at 1 pm on Thursday. When did it show the correct time?

(a) 1.00 am on Wednesday (b) 5.00 am on Wednesday (c) 1.00 pm on Wednesday (d) 5.00 pm on Wednesday

Directions (Question 17 to 22) :Given a statement followed by two assumptions numbered I and II. You have to consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement.

Mark (a) if only assumption I is implicit

Mark (b) if only assumption II is implicit

Mark (c) if either I or II is implicit

Mark (d) if neither I or II is implicit

17.Statement: Even with the increase in the number of sugar factories in India. We still continue to import sugar.

Assumptions :I. The consumption of sugar per capita has increased in India.

II. Many of the factories are not in a position to produce sugar to their fullest capacity.

Ans (c)

18.Statement :I cannot contact you on phone from Karshik.

Assumption : I. Telephone facility is not available at Karshik.

II. Nowadays it is difficult to contact on phone.

Ans (b)

19.Statement : The government has decided to reduce the custom duty on computer peripherals.

Assumptions : I. The domestic market price of computer peripherals may go up in near future.

II. the domestic manufacturers may oppose the decision.

Ans (a)

20. Statement : In Bombay, railway trains are indispensable for people in the suburbs to reach their places of work on time.

Assumptions : I. Railway trains are the only mode of transport available in the suburbs of Bombay.

II. Only railway trains run punctually.

Ans (a)

21. Statement :The private bus services in the city has virtually collapsed because of the ongoing strike of its employees.

Assumptions : I. Going on strikes has become the right of every employee.

II. People no more require the services of private bus operators.

Ans (b)

22. Statement : Detergents should be used. to clean clothes.

Assumptions : I. Detergents from more lather.

II. Detergents help to dislodge grease and dirt.

Ans (d)

23. Which letter when placed at the sign of interrogation shall complete the matrix?

A D H

F I M

? N R

(a) P (b) N (c) K (c) O

Ans (c)

24. Which letter when placed at the sign of interrogation shall complete the matrix?

A M B N

R C S D

E U F ?

(a) T (b) F (c) V (d) R

Ans (c)

25. Which number when placed at the sign of interrogation shall complete the matrix?

1 4 9 ?

1 2 3 4

2 4 6 ?

(a) 16 and 8 (b) 36 and 4 (c) 25 and 5 (d) 49 and 7

Ans (a)

26. Which number when placed at the sign of interrogation shall complete the matrix?

6 6 8

5 7 5

4 3 ?

120 126 320

(a) 12 (b) 16 (c) 8 (d) 4

Ans (c)

27. In the following questions, there are given two statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the two given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from two given statements, disregarding commonly known facts. Read both the statements and give answer as:

(a) If only conclusion I follows. (b) If only conclusion II follows.

(c) If either I or II follows. (d) If neither I nor II follows.

Statements: I. Many scooters are trucks. II. All trucks are trains

Conclusions: I. Some scooters are trains. II. No truck is a scooter.

Ans (a)

28. In the following questions, there are given two statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the two given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from two given statements, disregarding commonly known facts. Read both the statements and give answer as:

(a) If only conclusion I follows. (b) If only conclusion II follows.

(c) If either I or II follows. (d) If neither I nor II follows.

Statements: I. All cars are cats. II. All fans are cats.

Conclusions: I. All cars are fans. II. Some fans are cars.

Ans (d)

29. In the following questions, there are given two statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the two given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from two given statements, disregarding commonly known facts. Read both the statements and give answer as:

(a) If only conclusion I follows. (b) If only conclusion II follows.

(c) If either I or II follows. (d) If neither I nor II follows.

Statements: I. All pilots are experts. II. All authors are pilots.

Conclusions: I. All authors are experts. II. No expert in an author.

Ans (a)

30.In the following questions, there are given two statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the two given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from two given statements, disregarding commonly known facts. Read both the statements and give answer as:

(a) If only conclusion I follows. (b) If only conclusion II follows.

(c) If either I or II follows. (d) If neither I nor II follows.

Statements: I. Some doctors are institutes. II. Some crooks are institutes.

Conclusions: I. All institutes are doctors. II. Some institutes are crooks.

Ans (b)


.

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SBI PO (PROBATIONARY OFFICERS ) GENERAL AWARENESS SOLVED

SBI PO (PROBATIONARY OFFICERS ) GENERAL AWARENESS SOLVE PAPER

1. On 7th May 2008, agni-I was test-fired. It wasaE"

(A) Ballistic Missile

(B) Surface to air missile

(C) Land to sea missile

(D) Air to air missile


2. Which of the following High Courts has recently quashed the merit list issued in 2006 and 2007 by the centre and the UPSCaE"

(A) Bhopal High Court

(B) Rajasthan High Court

(C) Madras High Court

(D) Guwahati High Court


3. Recently the Acronym START came into News. START stands foraE"

(A) Strategic Association for Restructuring Trade

(B) Strategic Arms Limitation Treaty

(C) System Tracking and Reprocessing Team

(D) None of the above


4. PeopleaE?s Democratic Party emerged second largest party with 33A.01% in elections held inaE"

(A) Bhutan

(B) Nepal

(C) Zimbabwe

(D) Italy


5. According to the World Conservation Union Report, the number of plant species in India listed as threatened isaE"

(A) 247 plant species

(B) 250 plant species

(C) 275 plant species

(D) 255 plant species


6. Which of the following states passed a Bill in March 2008, amending the Registration Act 1908 to prohibit foreigners from buying land in the stateaE"

(A) Kerala

(B) Andhra Pradesh

(C) Goa

(D) Maharashtra


7. The renowned scientist John Wheeler who died in April 2008, was originally hailed fromaE"

(A) Australia

(B) U.S.A.

(C) Finland

(D) Britain


8. Who received Indira Gandhi Prize for Peace, Disarmanent and Development for 2007aE"

(A) Bill Gates

(B) Nelson Mandela

(C) Bill and Melinda Gates Foundation

(D) Arthur C. Clarke


9. The 2008 UNESCO/Guillermo Cano World Press Freedom Prize awarded to aE"

(A) Lydia Cacho Ribeiro

(B) Anna Politkovskaya

(C) May Chidiac

(D) U Win Tin


10. Which of the following Indian players has not completed 10,000 runs in Test cricketaE"

(A) Rahul Dravid

(B) Sachin Tendulkar

(C) Sunil Gavaskar

(D) Virendra Sehwag


11. On March 26, 2008, NASAaE?s space shuttle which returned safely to Earth after completing 16 day mission to International Space Station wasaE"

(A) Discovery

(B) Endeavour

(C) Columbia

(D) None of the above


12. Jules Verne is EuropeaE?saE"

(A) Space shuttle

(B) Missile shield system

(C) Biggest spacecraft

(D) Mission to Antarctica


13. IndiaaE?s National Vector Borne Disease Control Programme has prepared the countryaE?s firstaE"

(A) Dirrohoea map

(B) Malarial map

(C) Bird flu map

(D) Cancer map


14. aE~The World Is What It IsaE? is the biography ofaE"

(A) V. S. Naipal

(B) Khushwant Singh

(C) Amrita Preetam

(D) A.P.J. Abdul Kalam


15. According to a World Bank Report India got remittances in 2007 worthaE"

(A) $ 30 billion

(B) $ 35 billion

(C) $ 25 billion

(D) $ 27 billion


16. The Summit of NATO (NORTH ATLANTIC TREATY) was held in April inaE"

(A) Romania

(B) Morocco

(C) Pakistan

(D) Indonesia


17. According to latest WHO report the number of estimated TB cases found every year in India isaE"

(A) 2A.2 million

(B) 1A.9 million

(C) 1A.5 million

(D) 1A.7 million


18. Tata purchased Jaguar and Rover fromaE"

(A) Hyundai

(B) Maruti Suzuki

(C) Ford Motor

(D) None of the above


19. According to a survey, the country which has the highest number of internet users isaE"

(A) U.S.A.

(B) China

(C) Japan

(D) Germany


20. Which country has won the Women's Asia Cup Cricket 2008 which was held in Colombo in the monthe of May 2008 ?

(A) Brisbane

(B) Melbourne

(C) Sydney

(D) Perth


21. According to Prime MinisteraE?s Economic Advisory Council (EAC) headed by C. Rangrajan the economic growth rate for 2008-09 will remain ataE"

(A) 8%

(B) 8A.5%

(C) 9%

(D) 8A.9%


22. The Pritzkar Architecture Prize has been won byaE"

(A) Bill Gates Foundation

(B) William Harvey

(C) Jea Nouvel

(D) None of the above


23. Which of the following cricket players has been banned for violating the playeraE?s code of conduct by PCB ?

(A) Danish Kaneria

(B) Shoaib Malik

(C) Mohammad Yousuf

(D) Shoaib Akhtar


24. The National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme has now been extended to all 604 districts of the country with a total budget outlay ofaE"

(A) 18000 crore

(B) 16000 crore

(C) 15000 crore

(D) 14000 crore


25. Inflation which soared above 7% in the month of April is measured byaE"

(A) Consumer Price Index

(B) Retail Price Index

(C) Whole Sale Price Index

(D) Industrial Price Index


26. The winner of Bahrain Grand Prix isaE"

(A) Lewis Hamilton

(B) Kartikeyan

(C) Felipe Massa

(D) Robert Kubica


27. The winner of Miss India Earth 2008 isaE"

(A) Tanvi Vyas

(B) Suman Kaur

(C) Rashmi Sehgal

(D) Rani Sharma


28. In face of rising prices, Central Government has decided to set strategic Reserve of foodgrains over and above buffer stock. The limit of the reserve isaE"

(A) 10 million tonnes

(B) 7 million tonnes

(C) 6 million tonnes

(D) 5 million tonnes


29. Which of following newspapers/magazines won six Pulitzer prizesaE"

(A) The New York Times

(B) The Times Magazine

(C) The Washington Post

(D) The Guardian


30. aE~Leftism in India, 1917-1947aE? is a book written byaE"

(A) S. R. Chaudhuri

(B) K. Kanwar

(C) R. Nagaswamy

(D) Sudipto Chatterjee


31. Recently President Pratibha Patil visited three countries. Which of the following was not the part of her tripaE"

(A) Argentina

(B) Chile

(C) Mexico

(D) Brazil


32. GJM stands foraE"

(A) General Justice Movement

(B) Gorkha Janmukti Morcha

(C) Gorkhaland Janshakti Morcha

(D) Gorkha Janjagriti Morcha


33. The elections of which of the following countries were marred by controversyaE"

(A) Italy

(B) Spain

(C) Zimbabwe

(D) Nepal


34. Supreme Court has upheld the law enacted in 2006 providing 27% for candidates belonging toaE"

(A) SCs

(B) STs

(C) OBC

(D) Minorities OBC


35. At which of the following places have the remains of early human history been found in excavationaE"

(A) Chittorgarh

(B) Bhavnagar

(C) Kolkata

(D) Karaikal


36. aE~Salwa JudumaE? isaE"

(A) Terrorist organization

(B) A branch of naxalite

(C) Name of a police force

(D) An anti naxalite movement


37. When was Nepal declared a Secular NationaE"

(A) in 2005

(B) in 2007

(C) in 2008

(D) in 2006


38. The Director General of UN Food and Agriculture Organisation of present isaE"

(A) Jacques Diouf

(B) Kundekeh K. Yumkella

(C) Jammel Al Hiyilan

(D) Michael Griffin


39. According to a research, stem cells from skin can treataE"

(A) Alzhumer

(B) Schizophrenia

(C) ParkinsonaE?s disease

(D) None of the above


40. When did the Olympic torch relay begin ?

(A) in 1950

(B) in 1952

(C) in 1953

(D) in 1963

Answers with Hints

1. (A) 2. (C)

3. (B) The Strategic Arms Limitation Treaty (START-II) is a treaty between Russia and U.S.A. for reducing their nuclear arsenals. The treaty is due to expire in 2009.

4. (A) 5. (A) 6. (C) 7. (B) 8. (C) 9. (A) 10. (D) 11. (B) 12. (C)

13. (B) IndiaaE?s Vector Borne Disease Control Programme has prepared the countryaE?s first malarial map identifying IndiaaE?s 60 most malarial endemic districts that report over 50% of the countryaE?s malariaaE?s cases.

14. (A) 15. (D) 16. (A) 17. (B) 18. (C)

19. (B) 20. (A) India won fourth consecutive times in Women's Asia Cup Cricket 21. (B)

22. (C) The Pritzkar Architecture Prize, considered to be equivalent of Nobel Prize for architecture has been won french architect Jea Nouvel for his creative experimentation in architecture.

23. (D) 24. (B) 25. (C) 26. (C) 27. (A) 28. (D)

29. (C) The Washington Post has won six Pulitzer Prizes, including Public service award for its reporting on conditions of U.S. War Veterans.

30. (A) 31. (A) 32. (B) 33. (C)

34. (C) The Supreme Court on April 10, 2008 upheld the law enacted in 2006 providing a quota of 27 per cent to the other Backward Classes in Central Educational Institutions.

35. (C)

36. (D) Salva Judam is an antinaxalite movement formed by group of people against attack from maxalites. The movement started from Dantewada district (Chhattisgarh).

37. (D) 38. (A) 39. (C) 40. (B)


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