Solved CSAT Paper I of 2011

Solved CSAT Paper I of 2011

Sub Date: 3/10/2012

Here you find IAS Prelims General Studies Solved Question Paper I. UPSC conducted Civil Services Preliminary Examination 2011 on 12 June 2011. You can read these questions and prepare yourself for coming IAS Prelims and other important exams of India.

1. In the Union Budget 2011-12, a full exemption from the basic customs duty was extended to the bio-based asphalt (bioasphalt). What is the importance of this material?

1. Unlike traditional asphalt, bio-asphalt is not based on fossil fuels.
2. Bioasphalt can be made from non- renewable resources.
3. Bioasphalt can be made from organic waste materials.
4. It is ceo-friendly to use bioasphalt for surfacing of the roads.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1,2 and 3 only
(b) 1,3 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1,2,3 and 4

Ans: b

2. Consider the following:-

1. Carbon dioxide
2. Oxides of Nitrogen
3. Oxides of Sulphur

Which of the above is/are the emission/emissions from coal combustion at thermal power plants?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans:d

3. Satellites used for telecommunication relay are kept in a geostationary orbit. A satellite is said to be in such an orbit when:

1. The orbit is geosynchronous.
2. The orbit is circular.
3. The orbit lies in the plane of the Earth's equator.
4. The orbit is at an altitude of 22,236 km.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 4 Only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Ans: a

4. India has experienced persistent,and high food inflation in the recent past,what could be the reasons?

1.Due to a gradual switchover to the cultivation of commercial crops, the area under the cultivation of food grains has steadily decreased in the last five years by about 30%.
2. As a consequnce of increasing incomes,the consumption patterns of the people have undergone a significant change.
3. The food supply chain has structural constraints,

Which of the statements given above are correct ?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: b

5. At present, scientists can determine the arrangement or relative positions of genes or DNA sequences on a chromosome.How does this knowledge benefit us?

1. It is possible to know the pedigree of livestock.
2. It is possible to understand the causes of all human diseases.
3. It is possible to develop disease-resistant animal breeds,

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 Only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: c

6. In terms of economy, the visit by foreign nationals to witness the XIX Common Wealth Games in India amounted to

(a) Exports
(b) Imports
(c) Production
(d) Consumption

Ans: a

7. Microbial fuel cells are considered a source of sustainable energy.Why ?

1. They use living organisms as catalysts to generate electricity from certain substrates.
2. They use a variety of inorganic materials as substrates.
3. They can be installed in waste water treatment plants to cleanse water and produce electricity.

Which of the Statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: c

8. Which one of the following statements appropriately describes the "fiscal stimulus"?

(a) It is a massive investment by the Government in manufacturing sector to ensure the supply of goods to meet the demand surge caused by rapid economic growth.
(b) It is an intense affirmati ve action of the Government to boost economic activity in the country
(c) It is Government's intensive action on financial institutions to ensure disbursement of loans to agriculture and allied sectors to promote greater food production and contain food inflation
(d) It is an extreme affirmative action by the Government to pursue its policy of financial inclusion

Ans: b

9. The formation of ozone hole in the Antarctic region has been a cause of concern. What could be the reason for the formation of this hole?

(a) Presence of prominent tropo-spheric turbulence; and inflow of chlorofluorocarbons
(b) Presence of .prominent polar front and stratospheric': Clouds; and inflow of chlorofluorocarbons
(c) Absence of polar front and stratospheric clouds; and inflow of methane and chlorofluorocarbons
(d) Increased temperature at polar region due to golbal warming

Ans: b

10. Consider the following actions which the Governnient can take:

1. Devaluing the domestic currency.
2. Reduction in the export subsidy.
3. Adopting suitable policies which attract greater FDI and more funds from FIIs.

Which of the above action/actions can help in reducing the current account deficit?

(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 only
(d) 1 and 3

Ans: d

11. The Constitution (Seventy-Third Amend-ment) Act, 1992, which aims at promoting the Panchayati Raj Institutions in the country, provides for which of the following?

1. Constitution of District Planning Committees.
2. State Election Commissions to conduct all panchayat elections.
3. Establishment of State Finance Commissions.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 ans 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: c

12. Two important rivers - one with its source in Jharkhand (and known by a different name in Odisha), and another,with its source in Odisha - merge at a place only a short distance from the coast of Bay of Bengal before flowing into the sea. This is an important site of wildlife and biodiversity and a protected area.

Which one of the following could be this?

(a) Bhitarkanika
(b) Chandipur-on-sea
(c) Gopalpur-on-sea
(d) Simlipal

Ans: a

13. A rapid increase in the rate of inflation is sometimes attributed to the "base effect", What is "base effect" ?

(a) It is the impact of drastic deficiency in supply due to failure of crops
(b) It is the impact of the - surge in demand due to rapid economic growth
(c) It is the impact of the price levels of previous year on the calculation of inflation rate
(d) None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above is correct in this context

Ans: c

14. India is regarded as a country With "Demographic Dividend" This is due to

(a) Its high population in the age group below 15 years
(b) Its high population in the age group of 15-64 years
(c) Its high population in the age group above 65 years
(d) Its high total population

Ans: b

15. Regarding "carbon credits", which one of the following statements is not correct?

(a) The carbon credit system was ratified in conjunction with the Kyoto Protocol
(b) Carbon credits are awarded to countries or groups that have reduced greenhouse gases below their emission quota
(c) The goal of the carbon credit system is to limit the increase of carbon dioxide emission
(d) Carbon credits are traded at a price fixed from time to time by the United Nations Environment Programme

Ans: d

16. Which one of the following is not a feature of "Value Added Tax" ?

(a) It is a multi-point destination-based system of taxation
(b) It is a tax levied on value addition at each stage of transaction in the production-distribution chain
(c) It is a tax on the final consumption of goods or services and must ultimately be borne by the consumer
(d) It is basically a subject of the Cental Government and the State Governments are only a facilitator for its successful implementation

Ans: d

17. A "closed economy" is an economy in which

(a) the money supply is fully controlled
(b) deficit financing takes place
(c) only exports take place
(d) neither exports nor imports take place

Ans: d

18. When the bark of a tree is removed in a circular fashion all around near its base,it gradually dries up and dies because

(a) Water from soil cannot rise to aerial parts
(b) Roots are starved of energy
(c) Tree is infected by soil microbes
(d) Roots do not receive oxygen for respiration

Ans: a

19. The "New START" treaty was In the news. What is this treaty?

(a) It is a bilateral strategic nuclear arms reduction treaty between the USA and' the Russian Federation
(b) It is a multilateral energy security cooperation treaty among the members of the East Asia Summit
(c) It is a treaty between the Russian Federation and the European Union for the energy security cooperation
(d) It is a multilateral cooperation treaty among the BRICS countries Species richness

Ans: a

20. Three of the following criteria have contributed to the recognition of western Ghats-Sri Lanka and Indo-Burma regions as hotspots of biodiversity:

1. Species richness
2. Vegetation density
3. Endemism.
4. Ethno-botanical importance
5. Threat perception
6. Adaptation of flora and fauna to warm arid humid conditions

Which three of the above are correct criteria in this context?

(a) 1,2 and 6
(b) 2,4 and 6
(c) 1,3 and 5
(d) 3,4 and 6

Ans: c

21. Human activities in the recent past have caused the increased concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere, but a lot of it does not remain in the lower atmosphere because of

1. Its escape into the outer strato-sphere.
2. The photosynthesis by phyto-plankton in the oceans.
3. The trapping of air in the polar ice caps

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 3 only

Ans: c

22. In the context of ecosystem productivity, marine upwelling zones are important as they increase the marine productivity by bringing the

1. decomposer microorganisms to the surface.
2. nutrients to the surface.
3. bottom-dwelling organisms to the surface.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 only

Ans: d

23. If a tropical rain forest is removed, it does not regenerate quickly as compared to a tropical deciduous forest. This is because

(a) the soil of rain forest is deficient in nutrients
(b) propagules of the trees in a rain forest have poor viability
(c) the rain forest species are slow- growing
(d) exotic species invade the fertile soil of rain forest

Ans: a

24. The Himalayan Range is very rich in species diversity. Which one among the following is the most appropriate reason for this Phenomenon?

(a) It has a high rainfall that supports luxuriant vegetative growth
(b) It is a confluence of different bio-geographical zones
(c) Exotic and invasive species have riot been introduced in this region
(d) It has less human interference

Ans: b

25. With reference to India, consider the following Central Acts:

1. Import and Export (Control) Act, 1947
2. Mining and Mineral Development (Regulation) Act, 1957
3. Customs Act, 1962
4. Indian Forest Act, 1927

Which of the above Acts have relevance to/bearing on the biodiversity conser-vation in the country?

(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(d) None of the above Acts

Ans: c

26. Karl Marx explained the process of class struggle with the help of which one of the following theories?

(a) Empirical liberalism
(b) Existentialism
(c) Darwin's theory of evolution
(d) Dialectical materialism

Ans: d

27. A layer in the Earth s atmosphere called Ionosphere facilitates radio communication. Why?

1. The presence of ozone 'causes the,reflection of radio waves to Earth.
2. Radio waves have a very long wavelength

Which of the statements given above is/are correct.

a) 1 Only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: c

28. Both Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) and Foreign Institutional Investor (FII) are related to investment in a country. Which one of the following statements best represents an important difference between the two ?

(a) FII helps bring better management skills and technology, while FDI only brings in capital
(b) FII helps in increasing capital availability in general, while FDI only targets specific sectors.
(c) FDI flows only into the secondary market, while FII targets primary market
(d) FII is considered to be more stable than FDI

Ans: b

29. A genetically engineered form of brinjal,Known as the Bt-brinjal, has been developed. The objective of this is

(a) To make it pest-resistant
(b) To improve its taste and nutritive qualities
(c) To make it drought-resistant
(d) To make its shelf-life longer

Ans: a

30. With reference to "Aam Admi Bima Yojana", consider the following statements:

1. The member insured under the scheme must be the head of the family or an. earning member of the family in a rural landless house- hold.
2. The Member insured must be in the age group of 30 to 65 years.
3. There is a provision for free scholarship for up to two children of the insured who are studying between classes 9 and 12.

Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: c

31. In the context of global oil prices. "Brent crude oil" is frequently referred to in the news. What does this term imply?

1. it is a major classification of crude oil.
2. It is sourced from north sea.
3. It does not contain sulphur.

which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 2 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: b

32. The Function of heavy water in a nuclear reactor is to

(a) Slow down the speed of neutrons
(b) Increase the speed of neutrons
(c) Cool down the reactor
(d) Stop the nuclear reaction

Ans: a

33. In India, if a religious sect/community is given the status of a national minority, what special advantages it is entitled to ?

1. It can establish and administer exclusive educational institutions.
2. The President of India automatically nominates a representative of the community to Lok Sabha.
3. It can derive benefits from the Prime Minister's 15-Point Programme.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 onJy
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: c

34. India is home to lakhs of persons with disabilities. What are the benefits available to' them under the law?

1. Free schooling till the age of 18 years in government-run schools.
2. Preferential allotment of land for setting up business.
3. Ramps in public buildings.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: d

35. With what purpose is the Government of India promoting the concept of "Mega Food Parks" ?

1. To provide good infrastructure facilities for the food processing processing industry.
2. To increase the processing of perishable items and reduce wastage.
3. To provide emerging and eco-friendly food processing technologies to entrepreneurs.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: d

36. The authorization for the withdrawal of funds from the Consolidated Fund of India must come from

(a) The President of India
(b) The Parliament of India
(c) The Prime Minister of India
(d) The Union Finance Minister

Ans: b

37. All revenues received by the Union Government by way of taxes and other receipts for the conduct of Government business are credited to the
(a) Contingency Fund of India
(b) Public Account
(c) Consolidated Fund of India
(d) Deposits and Advances Fund

Ans: c

38. Microfinance is the provision of financial services to people of low-income groups. This includes both the consumers and the self-employed.The service/ services rendered under micro- finance is/ are :

1. Credit facilities
2. Savings facilities
3. Insurance facilities
4. Fund Transfer facilities Select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 4 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Ans: d

39. Southeast Asia has captivated the attention. of global community' over space and time as a geostrategically significant region. Which among the following is the most convincing explanation for this global perspective ?

(a) It was the hot theatre during the Second World War
(b) Its location between the Asian powers of China and India
(c) It was the arena of superpower confrontation during the Cold War period
(d) Its location between the Pacific and Indian oceans and its pre-eminent maritime character

Ans: d

40. A company marketing food products advertises that its items do not contain transfats. What does this campaign signify to the customers?

1. The food products are not made out of hydrogenated oils.
2. The food products are not made out of animal fats/ oils.
3. The oils used are not likely to damage the cardiovascular health of the consumers.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: c

41. Among the following who are eligible to benefit from the "Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act" ?

(a) Adult members of only the scheduled caste and scheduled tribe households
(b) Adult members of below poverty line (BPL) households
(c) Adult members of households of all backward communities
(d) Adult members of any household

Ans: d

42. With reference to "Look East Policy" of India, consider the following statements:

1. India wants to establish itself as an important regional player in the East Asian affairs.
2. India wants to plug the vacuum created by the termination of Cold War.
3. India wants to restore the historical and cultural ties with its neighbours in Southeast and East Asia.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: b

43. When the annual Union Budget is not passed by the Lok Sabha,

(a) the Budget is modified and presented again
(b) the Budget is referred to the Rajya Sabha for suggestions
(c) the Union Finance Minister is asked to resign
(d) the Prime Minister submits the resignation of Council of Ministers

Ans: d

44. Under the Constitution of India, which one of the following is not a fundamental duty?

(a) To vote in public elections
(b) To develop the scientific temper
(c) To safeguard public property
(d) To abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals

Ans: a

45. With reference to the Finance Commission of India, which of the following statements is correct?

(a) It encourages the inflow of foreign capital for infrastructure development
(b) It facilitates the proper distribution of finances among the Public Sector Undertakings
(c) It ensuresjransparency in financial administration
(d) None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above is correct in this context.

Ans: d

46. Consider the following:

1. Right to education.
2. Right to equal access to public service.
3. Right to food.

Which of the above is/ are Human Right/Human Rights under "Universal Declaration of Human Rights"?

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: d

47. There is a concern over the increase in harmful algal blooms in the seawaters of India. What could be the causative factors for this phenomenon?

1. Discharge of nutrients from the estuaries.
2. Run-off from the land during the monsoon.
3. Upwelling in the seas.

Select the Correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: b

48. Consider the foliowing:
1. Photosynthesis
2. Respiration
3. Decay of organic matter
4. Volcanic action

Which of the above add carbon dioxide to the carbon cycle on Earth ?
(a) 1 and 4 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2,3 and 4

Ans: c

49. Recently, the OSA decided to support India's membership In multi-lateral export control regimes called the "Australia Group" and the "Wassenaar
Arrangement". What is the difference between them?

1. The Australia Group is an informal arrangement which aims to allow exporting countries to minimize the risk of assisting chemical and biological weapons proliferation, whereas the Wassenaar Arrangement is a formal group under the OECD holding identical objectives.

2. The Australia Group comprises predominantly of Asian, African and North American countries, whereas the member countries of Wassenaar'Arrangement are predominantly,from the European Union and American continents.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: a

50. The surface of a lake is frozen in severe winter, but the water at its bottom is still liquid. What is the reason?

(a) Ice is a bad conductor of heat
(b) Since the surface of the lake is at the same temperature as the air, no heat is lost
(c) The density of water is maximum at 4°C
(d) None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above is correct.

Ans: c

51. A sandy and saline area is the natural habitat of an Indian animal species. The animal has no predators in that area but its existence is threatened due to the destruction of its habitat. Which one of the following could be that animal?

(a) Indian wild buffalo
(b) Indian wild ass
(c) Indian wild boar
(d) Indian gazelle

Ans: b

52. La Nina is suspected to have caused recent floods in Australia. How IS La Nina different from EI Nino?

1. La Nina is characterised by un-usually cold ocean' temperature in equatorial indian Ocean whereas EI Nino-is -Characterised "by 'unusually warm ocean temperature in the equatorial Pacific Ocean.
2. El Nino has adverse effect on south-west monsoon of India, but La Nina has no effect on monsoon climate.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither I nor 2

Ans: d

53. The tendency for increased litigation was visible after the introduction of the land settlement system of Lord Cornwallis in 1793. The reason for this is normally traced to which of the following provisions?

(a) Making Zarnindar 's position stronger vis-a-vis the ryot
(b) Making East India Company an overlord of Zamindars
(c) Making judicial system more efficient
(d) None of the (a), (b) and (c) above

Ans: b

54. Which one of the following observations is not true about the Quit India Movement of 1942 ?

(a) It was a non-violent movement
(b) It was led by Mahatma Gandhi
(c) It was a spontanous movement
(d) It did not attract the labour class in general

Ans: b

55. Which amongst the following provided a common factor for tribal insurrection in India in the 19th century ?

(a) Introduction of a new system of land revenue and taxation of tribal products
(b) Influence of foreign religious missionaries in tribal areas
(c) Rise of a large number of money lenders, traders and revenue farmers as middlemen in tribal areas
(d) The complete disruption of the old agrarian order of the' tribal communities

Ans: c

56. India maintained its early cultural contacts and trade links with Southeast Asia across the Bay of Bengal. For this pre-eminence of early maritime history of Bay of Bengal, which of the following could be the most convincing explanation/explanations?

(a) As compared to other countries, India had a better strip-building technology in ancient and medieval times
(b) The rulers of southern India always patronized traders, brahmin priests and buddhist monks in this context
(c) Monsoon winds across the Bay of Bengal facilitaied.seayo Yagages
(d) Both (a) and (b) are convincing explanations inthiscontext

Ans: d

57. What' IS the difference between Bluetooth. and Wi-Fi devices?

(a) Bluetooth uses 2-4GHz .radio frequency band, whereas Wi-Fi can use 2-4 GHz or 5GHz frequency band
(b) Bluetooth is used for Wireless Local Area Networks ,(WLAN) only, whereas Wi-Fi is used for Wireless Wide Area Networks (WWAN) only
(c) When information is transmitted between two devices using Blue- tooth technology, the devices have to be in the line of sight of each other, but when Wi-Fi technology is used the devices need not be in the line of sight of each other
(d) The statemen (a) and (b) given above are correctin this context

Ans: a

58. With reference to micro-irrigation, which of the following statements is/are correct ?

1. Fertilizer/nutrient loss can be reduced.
2. It is the only means of irrigation in dry land farming.
3. In some areas of farming, receding of ground water table can be checked.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: c

59. With reference to the period of colonial rule in India, "Home -Charges" formed an important part of drain of wealth from India. Which of the following funds constituted "Home Charges" ?

1.Funds used to support the India Office in London.
2. Funds used to pay salaries and pensions of British personnel engaged in India.
3. Funds used for waging wars outside India by the British.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) I and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: a

60. What was the reason for Mahatma Gandhi to organize a satyagraha on behalf of the peasants of Kheda ?

1. The Administration did not suspend the land revenue collection in spite of a drought.
2. The Administration proposed to introduce Permanent Settlement in Gujarat.

Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 or 2

Ans: a

61. Biodiversity forms the basis for human existence in the following ways:

1. Soil formation
2. Prevention of soil erosion
3. Recycling of waste
4. Pollination of crops

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Ans: d

62. Aspartame is an artificial sweetener sold in the market. It consists of amino acids and provides calories like other amino acids. Yet, it is used as a low-calorie sweetening agent in food items. What is the basis of this use ?

(a) Aspartame is as sweet as table sugar, but unlike table sugar, it is not readily oxidized in human body due to lack of requisite enzymes
(b) When aspartame is used in food processing, the sweet taste remains, but it 'beccmes resistant to oxida- tion
(c) Aspartame is as sweet as sugar, but after ingestion into the body, it is converted into metabolites that yield no calories
(d) Aspartame is several times sweeter than table "sugar, hence food items made with small quantities of aspartame yield fewer calorieson oxidation

Ans: c

63. What was the purpose with which Sir William Wedderburn and W. S. Caine had set up the Indian Parliamentary Committee in 1893 ?

(a) To agitate for Indian political reforms in the House of Commons
(b) To campaign for the entry of Indians into the Imperial Judiciary
(c) To facilitate a discussion on India's Independence in the British Parliament
(d) To agitate for the entry of eminent Indians into the British Parliament

Ans: a

64. What is the difference between a CFL and an LED lamp ?

1. To produce light, a CFL uses mercury vapour' and phosphor while an LED lamp uses semi-conductor material.
2. The average life span of a CFL is much longer than that of an LED lamp.
3. A CFL is less energy-efficient as compared to an LED lamp.

Which of the statements given above Is/are correct ?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: c

65. Recently, "oilzapper" was in the news. What is it ?

(a) It is an eco-friendly technology for the remediation of oily sludge and oil spills
(b) It is the latest technology developed for under-sea oil exploration
(c) It is a genetically engineered high biofuel-yielding maize variety
(d) It is the latest technology to control the accidentally caused flames from oil wells

Ans: a

66. A married couple adopted a male child. A few years ,later, twin boys were born to them. The blood group of the couple is AB positive and 0 negative. The blood group of. the three sons is A positive, B positive, and 0 positive. The blood group of the adopted son is

(a) O positive
(b) A positive
(c) B positive
(d) Cannot be determined on the basis of the given data

Ans: a

67. Mahatma Gandhi said that some of his deepest convictions were reflected in a book titled,"Unto this Last" and the book transformed his life. What was the message from the book that transformed Mahatma Gandhi?

(a) Uplifting the oppressed and poor is the moral responsibility of an educated man
(b) The good of individual is contained in the good of all .
(c) The life of celibacy and spiritual pursuit are essential for a noble life
(d) All the statements (a), (b) and (c) are correct in this context

Ans:

68. With reference to Indian freedom struggle, Usha Mehta is well-known for
(a) Running the secret Congress Radio in the wake of Quit India Movement
(b) Participating in the Second Round Table Conference
(c) Leading a contingent of Indian National Army
(d) Assisting in the formation of Interim Government under Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru

Ans: a

69. A new optical disc format known as the Blu-ray Disc (BD) is becoming popular. In what way is it different from the traditional DVD?

1. DVD supports Standard Definition video while BD supports High Definition video.
2. Compared to a DVD, the BD format has several times more storage capacity.
3. Thickness of BD is 2-4 mm while that of DVD is1-2 mm.

Which of the statements given above is! are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: c

70. With reference to the period of Indian freedom struggle, which of the following was/were recommended by the Nehru report ?

1. Complete Independence for India.
2. Joint electorates for reservation of seats for minorities.
3. Provision of fundamental rights for the people of India in the Constitution.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) I only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: b

71. Among the following States, which one has the most suitable climatic conditions for the cultivation of a large variety of• orchids with minimum cost of production, and can develop an export oriented industry in this field?

(a) Andhra Pradesh
(b) Arunachal Pradesh
(c) Madhya Pradesh
(d) Uttar Pradesh

Ans: b

72. Which one of the following is not a site for in-situ method of conservation of flora?

(a) Biosphere Reserve
(b) Botanical Garden
(c) National Park
(d) Wildlife Sanctuary

Ans: b

73. Consider the following statements: In India, a Metropolitan Planning Committee?

1. is constituted under the provisions of the Constitution of India.
2. prepares the draft development plans for metropolitan area.
3. has the sole responsibility for implementing Government sponsored schemes III the metropolitan area.

Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans:

74. What is the difference between "vote- on-account" and "interim budget" ?

1. The provision of a "vote-on- account" is used by a regular Government, while an "interim budget" is a provision used by a caretaker Government.
2. A "vote-an-account" only deals with the expenditure in Government's budget, while an "interim budget" includes both expenditure and receipts.

Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 or 2

Ans:

75. Regarding 'the International Monetary Fund, which one of the following statements, is correct?

(a) It can grant loans to any country
(b) It can grant loans to only developed countries
(c) It grants loans to only member countries
(d) It can grant loans to the central bank of a country

Ans: c

76. The 2004 Tsunami made people realize that mangroves can serve as a reliable safety hedge against coastal calamities. How do mangroves function as a safety hedge?

(a) The mangrove swamps separate the human settlements from the sea by a wide zone in which people neither live nor venture out
(b) The mangroves provide both food and medicines which people are in need of after any natural disaster
(c) The mangrove trees are tall with dense canopies and serve as an excellent shelter during a cyclone or tsunami
(d) The mangrove trees do not get uprooted by storms and tides because of their extensive roots

Ans:

77. The Jain philosophy holds that the world is' created 'and maintained by

(a) Universal Law
(b) Universal Truth
(c) Universal Faith
(d) Universal Soul

Ans: a

78. Salinization occurs when the irrigation water accumulated in the soil evapo- rates, leaving behind salts and minerals. What are the effects of salinization on the irrigated land?

(a) It greatly increases the crop production
(b) It makes some soils impermeable
(c) It raises the water table
(d) It fills the air spaces in the soil with water

Ans: b

79. The "Red Data Books" published by the International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources (IUCN) contain lists of

1. Endemic plant and animal species present in the biodiversity hotspots.
2. Threatened plant and animal species.
3. Protected sites for conservation of nature and natural resources . in various countries.

Select the correct. answer using the codes given below :

(a) 1 and 3
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 only

Ans: b

80. Why is the offering of "teaser loans" by commercial banks a cause Of economic concern ?

1. The teaser loans are considered to be an aspect of sub-prime lending and banks may be exposed to the risk of defaulters in future.
2. In India, the teaser loans are mostly given to inexperienced entrepreneurs to set up manufacturing or export units.

Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: a

81. An artificial satellite orbiting around the Earth does not fall down. This is so because the attraction of Earth

(a) does not exist at such distance
(b) is neutralized by the attraction of the moon
(c) provides the necessary speed for its steady motion
(d) provides the necessary acceleration for its motion

Ans:

82. In the context of Indian economy, consider the following statements :

1. The growth rate of GDP has steadily increased in the last five years.
2. The growth rate in per capita income has steadily increased in the last five years.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans:

83. In India, which of the following have the highest share in the disbursement of credit to agriculture and allied activities ?

(a) Commercial Banks
(b) Cooperative Banks
(c) Regional Rural Banks
(d) Microfinance Institutions

Ans: a

84. Which of the following can aid in furthering the Govemment's objective of inclusive growth?

1. Promoting Self-Help Groups
2. Promoting Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises
3. Implementing the Right to Education Act

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: d

85. Why is the Government of India disinvesting its equity in the Central Public Sector Enterprises (CPSEs)?

1. The Government intends to use the revenue earned from the disinvestment mainly to pay back the external debt.
2. The Government no longer intends to retain the management control of the CPSEs.

Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans:

86. What is the difference between asteroids and comets?

1. Asteroids are small rocky plane- toids, while comets are formed of frozen gases held together by rocky and metallic material.
2. Asteroids are found mostly between the _ orbits of Jupiter and Mars, while comets are found mostly between Venus and Mercury.
3. Comets show a perceptible glowing tail, while asteroids do not.

Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: b

87. Economic growth is with usually coupled

(a) Deflation
(b) Inflation
(c) Stagflation
(d) Hyperinflation

Ans: b

88. The lowering of Bank Rate by the Reserve Bank of India leads to

(a) More liquidity in the market
(b) Less liquidity in the market
(c) No change in the liquidity in the market
(d) Mobilization of more deposits by commercial - banks

Ans: a

89. Westerlies in southern hemisphere are stronger and persistent than in northern hemisphere. Why?

1. Southern hemisphere landmass as compared hemisphere. has less to northern
2. Coriolis force is higher in southern hemisphere, as compared to northern hemisphere

Which of the statements given above isl are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans:

90. Between India and East Asia, the navigation time and distance can be greatly reduced by which of the following?

1. Deepening the Malacca straits between Malaysia and Indonesia.
2. Opening a new canal across the Kraisthmus between the Gulf of Siam and Andaman Sea.

Which of the statements given above isl are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both I and 2
(d) Neither I nor 2

Ans: b

91. Regular intake of fresh fruits and vegetables is recommended in the diet since they are a good source of antioxidants. How do antioxidants help a person maintain health and promote longevity?

(a) They activate the enzymes necessary for vitamin synthesis in the body and help prevent vitamin deficiency
(b) They prevent excessive oxidation of carbohydrates, fats and proteins in the body and help avoid unnecessary wastage of energy
(c) They neutralize the free radicals produced in. the' body during metabolism
(d) They activate certain genes in the cells of the body and help delay the ageing process

Ans: c

92. Regarding the Indus Valley Civilization, consider the following statements:

1. It was predominantly a secular civilization and the religious element, though present, did not dominate the scene.
2. During this period, cotton was used for manufacturing textiles in India.

Which of the statements given above isl are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: c

93. The lower Gangetic plain is characterised by humid climate with high temperature throughout the year. Which one among the following pairs of crops is most suitable for this region?

(a) Paddy and cotton
(b) Wheat and Jute
(c) Paddy and Jute
(d) Wheat and cotton

Ans: c

94. What could be the main reasonlreasons for the formation of African and Eurasian desert belt ?

1. It is located in the sub-tropical high pressure cells.
2. It is. under the influence of warm ocean currents.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct in this context?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: a

95. The jet aircrafts fly very easily and smoothly in the lower stratosphere. What could be the appropriate explanation?

1. There are no clouds or water vapour in the lower stratosphere.
2. There are no vertical winds in the lower stratosphere.

which of the statements given above is/are correct in this context?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: a

96. Consider the following statements:

1. Biodiversity is normally greater in the lower latitudes as compared to the higher latitudes.
2. Along the mountain gradients, biodiversity is normally greater in the lower altitudes as compared to the higher altitudes.

Which of the statements given above is! are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both I and 2
(d) Neither 1 and 2

Ans: c

97. The Brahmaputra, Irrawady and Mekong rivers originate in Tibet and flow it through narrow and parallel mountain ranges in their upper reaches. Of these rivers, Brahmaputra makes a "U" turn in its course to flow into India. This "U" turn is due to

(a) Uplift of folded Himalayan series
(b) Syntaxial bending of geologically young Himalayas
(c) Geo-tectonic disturbance in the tertiary folded mountain chains
(d) Both (a) and (b) above

Ans: d

98. A state in India has the following characteristics:

1. Its northern part is arid and semiarid.
2. Its central part produces cotton.
3. Cultivation of cash crops is predominant over food crops.

Which one of the following states has all of the above characteristics ?

(a) Andhra Pradesh
(b) Gujarat
(c) Karnataka
(d) Tamil Nadu

Ans: b

99. What is"Virtual Private Network" ?

(a) It is a private computer network of an organization where the remote users can transmit encrypted information through the server of the organization
(b) It is a computer network across a public internet that provides users access to their organization's network while maintaining the security of the information transmitted
(c) It is a computer network in which users can access a shared pool of computing resources through a service provider
(d) None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above is a correct description of Virtual Private Network

Ans: b

100. The "dharma" and "rita" depict a central idea of ancient Vedic civilization of India. In this context, consider the following statements :

1. Dharma was a conception of obligations and of the discharge of one's duties to oneself and to others.
2. Rita was the fundamental moral law governing the functioning of the universe and all it contained.

Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: c

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About Indian Administrative Services : IAS

The IAS (Indian Administrative Service) was formally constituted in 1947, and is the premier service in India. It offers an attractive and challenging career. Fame and glamour are also associated with this service. Even though most people tend to think being the DM or Collector is the most powerful and glamorous post, The IAS holds power at all levels. It is the service that is meant to place people straight at the top of any government organization and not the district alone. inspite of all the political interference if you are a determined person and diplomatic you can achieve anything for your country.

The IAS or the Indian Administrative Service, handles affairs of the government. At the central level, this involves the framing and implementation of policy. At the district level, it is concerned with district affairs, including development functions. At the divisional level, the IAS officers look after law and order, general administration and development work. Members of the Indian Administrative Service hold various administrative posts like District Collector, Heads of Departments, Heads of Public Enterprises at the state level etc. They can also be posted on deputation to the Central Government to various posts.

Being an 'All India Service', it follows the Cadre system. In this system officers are allotted to various state cadres and your service is allotted to that state. So for all practical purposes you belong to that state service and may be deputed elsewhere but you'll always be recognized by your parent cadre. These systems though very useful tend to positively and negatively affect careers. The cadre system is allotted on a basis of lottery and the toppers of each state may get a chance to get their home states if they have opted for such a preference



In the Government of India (i.e.. in the ministries) you will deal with the formulation of policies and supervise their implementation. In each Ministry you will supervise the allotment and utilization of funds by the field officers in your Ministry. You will also be asked to furnish information to the Parliament in response to queries relating to your Ministry. You will have to work late into the night and under much pressure when Parliament is in session. Sometimes, your work will entail visits to the States. Depending on your rank, you might even be the government nominee on the Board of Directors of some Public Sector Corporation. You will also at times be nominated to independently represent India at International forums or accompany the Minister for such meetings. From the rank of Deputy Secretary to the Government of India, you can sign international agreements on behalf of the Government of India.

However, more than half your career life will be spent in the State you are allocated, where you will look after law and order, general administration, revenue work and developmental functions. During the course of your two year probation you will be attached to various training schools, to the Secretariat and field offices and to a district collector’s office. Here you will do the work of a sub magistrate. On completion of your two year’s probation you will be appointed as a Sub Divisional Magistrate(SDM). As S.D.M. you will look after law and order, general administration, revenue work and such developmental work as may be assigned to you. In the next three scales i.e.. Senior Scale, Junior Administrative Grade and Selection Grade you will serve as District Magistrate, Chief Development Officer, Director of a department, Managing Director of a Public Sector Unit or a Senior officer in the State Secretariat. In other words, you could be a District Magistrate in your fifth year of service and remain a D.M. till you are promoted to the Super Time Scale in the 17th year of your service.

What your rank in the State Secretariat will be varies widely from State to State,. For example, in Jammu and Kashmir, young I.A.S. officers in the Junior Administrative Grade become Secretaries. In most States, however, I.A.S. Officers become Secretaries to the State Government when they reach the Selection Grade. In all States, supertime scale officers are Secretaries or Divisional Commissioners. Following this there are promotions in scale to the ranks of Principal Secretary and additional Chief Secretary. The highest post in the State is that of the Chief Secretary.

You will also be asked to furnish information to the Parliament in response to queries relating to your Ministry. You will have to work late into the night and under much pressure when Parliament is in session. Sometimes, your work will entail visits to the States. Depending on your rank, you might even be the government nominee on the Board of Directors of some Public Sector Corporation. You will also at times be nominated to independently represent India at International forums or accompany the Minister for such meetings. From the rank of Deputy Secretary to the Government of India, you can sign international agreements on behalf of the Government of India.

However, more than half your career life will be spent in the State you are allocated, where you will look after law and order, general administration, revenue work and developmental functions. During the course of your two year probation you will be attached to various training schools, to the Secretariat and field offices and to a district collector’s office. Here you will do the work of a sub magistrate. On completion of your two year’s probation you will be appointed as a Sub Divisional Magistrate(SDM). As S.D.M. you will look after law and order, general administration, revenue work and such developmental work as may be assigned to you. In the next three scales i.e.. Senior Scale, Junior Administrative Grade and Selection Grade you will serve as District Magistrate, Chief Development Officer, Director of a department, Managing Director of a Public Sector Unit or a Senior officer in the State Secretariat. In other words, you could be a District Magistrate in your fifth year of service and remain a D.M. till you are promoted to the Super Time Scale in the 17th year of your service.

What your rank in the State Secretariat will be varies widely from State to State,. For example, in Jammu and Kashmir, young I.A.S. officers in the Junior Administrative Grade become Secretaries. In most States, however, I.A.S. Officers become Secretaries to the State Government when they reach the Selection Grade. In all States, supertime scale officers are Secretaries or Divisional Commissioners. Following this there are promotions in scale to the ranks of Principal Secretary and additional Chief Secretary. The highest post in the State is that of the Chief Secretary.
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Eligibillty Criteria for IAS Exam

ELIGIBILITY Criteria for IAS Exam!

(i) Nationality
(1) For the Indian Administrative Service and the Indian Police Service, a candidate must be a citizen of India.
(2) For other services, a candidate must be either:-
(a) a citizen of India, or
(b) a subject of Nepal, or
(c) a subject of Bhutan, or

(d) a Tibetan refugee who came over to India before 1st January, 1962 with the intention of permanently settling in India, or

(e) a person of Indian origin who has migrated from Pakistan, Burma, Sri Lanka, East African countries of Kenya, Uganda, the United Republic of Tanzania, Zambia, Malawi, Zaire, Ethiopia and Vietnam with the intention of permanently settling in India. Provided that a candidate belonging to categories (b), (c), (d) and (e) shall be a person in whose favour a certificate of eligibility has been issued by the Government of India.

Provided further that candidates belonging to categories (b), (c) and (d) above will not be eligible for appointment to the Indian Foreign Service.

A candidate in whose case a certificate of eligibility is necessary, may be admitted to the examination but the offer of appointment may be given only after the necessary eligibility certificate has been issued to him/her by the Government of India.

(ii) Age Limits :
(a) A candidate must have attained the age of 21 years and must not have attained the age of 30 years on 1st August, in the given year

(b) The upper age limit prescribed above will be relaxable :
(i) upto a maximum of five years if a candidate belongs to a Scheduled Caste or a Scheduled Tribe.

(ii) upto a maximum of three years in the case of candidates belonging to Other Backward Classes who are eligible to avail of reservation applicable to such candidates.

(iii) upto a maximum of five years if a candidate had ordinarily been domiciled in the State of Jammu & Kashmir during the period from the 1st January, 1980 to the 31st day of December, 1989.

(iv) upto a maximum of three years in the case of Defence Services personnel disabled in operations during hostilities with any foreign country or in a disturbed area and released as a consequence thereof.

(v) up to a maximum of five years in the case of ex-servicemen including Commissioned Officers and ECOs/SSCOs who have rendered at least five years Military Service as on 1st August, 2011 and have been released

(i) on completion of assignment (including those whose assignment is due to be completed within one year from

1st August, 2011) otherwise than by way of dismissal or discharge on account of misconduct or inefficiency, or

(ii) on account of physical disability attributable to Military Service, or
(iii) on invalidment.

(vi) Upto a maximum of five years in the case of ECOs/SSCOs who have completed an initial period of assignment of five years Military Service as on 1st August, 2011 and whose assignment has been extended beyond five years and in whose case the Ministry of Defence issues a certificate that they can apply for civil employment and that they will be released on three months notice on selection from the date of receipt of offer of appointment.

(vii) up to a maximum of 10 years in the c a s e o f blind , deaf-mute and orthopedically handicapped persons.

NOTE I:
Candidates belonging to the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes and the Other Backward Classes who are also covered under any other clauses of para 3(ii) (b) above, viz. those coming under the category of Ex-servicemen, persons domiciled in the State of J & K, blind, deaf-mute and orthopedically handicapped etc. will be eligible for grant of cumulative age-relaxation under both the categories.

NOTE II:
The term ex-servicemen will apply to the persons who are defined as ex-servicemen in the Ex-servicemen (Re-employment in Civil Services and Posts) Rules, 1979, as amended from time to time.

NOTE III :
The age concession under para 3(ii) (b) (v) and (vi) will not be admissible to ExServicemen and Commissioned Officers including ECOs/SSCOs who are released on own request.

NOTE IV:
Notwithstanding the provision of age-relaxation under para 3 (ii) (b) (vii) above, a physically disabled candidate will be considered to be eligible for appointment only if he/she (after such physical examination as the Government or appointing authority, as the case may be, may prescribe) is found to satisfy the requirements of physical and medical standards for the concerned Services/posts to be allocated to the physically disabled candidates by the Government.

SAVE AS PROVIDED ABOVE THE AGE LIMITS PRESCRIBED CAN IN NO CASE BE RELAXED.
The date of birth accepted by the Commission is that entered in the Matriculation or Secondary School Leaving Certificate or in a certificate recognised by an Indian University as equivalent to Matriculation or in an extract from a Register of Matriculates maintained by a University, which extract must be certified by the proper authority of the University or in the Higher Secondary or an equivalent examination certificate.

These certificates are required to be submitted only at the time of applying for the Civil Services (Main) Examination. No other document relating to age like horoscopes, affidavits, birth extracts from Municipal Corporation, service records and the like will be accepted. The expression Matriculation/Secondary Examination Certificate in this part of the instruction includes the alternative certificates mentionedabove.

NOTE 1:
Candidates should note that only the Date of Birth as recorded in the Matriculation/ Secondary Examination Certificate or an equivalent certificate as on the date of submission of applications will be accepted by the Commission and no subsequent request for its change will be considered or granted.

NOTE 2 :
Candidates should also note that once a Date of Birth has been claimed by them and entered in the records of the Commission for the purpose of admission to an examination, no change will be allowed subsequently (or at any other examination of the Commission) on any grounds whatsoever.

NOTE 3 :
The candidate should exercise due care while entering their date of birth in column 3 of the Application Form for the Preliminary Examination. If on verification at any subsequent stage, any variation is found in their date of birth from the one entered in their matriculation or equivalent Examination certificate, disciplinary action will be taken against them by the Commission under the Rules.

(iii) Minimum Educational Qualifications :
The candidate must hold a degree of any of Universities incorporated by an Act of the Central or State Legislature in India or other educational institutions established by an Act of Parliament or declared to be deemed as a University Under Section-3 of the University Grants Commission Act, 1956, or possess an equivalent qualification.

NOTE I :
Candidates who have appeared at an examination the passing of which would render them educationally qualified for the Commission’s examination but have not been informed of the results as also the candidates who intend to appear at such a qualifying examination will also be eligible for admission to the Preliminary Examination. All candidates who are declared qualified by the Commission for taking the Civil Services (Main) Examination will be required to produce proof of passing the requisite examination with their application for the Main Examination failing which such candidates will not be admitted to the Main Examination. The applications for the Main Examination will be called sometime in the month of July/August.

NOTE II :
In exceptional cases the Union Public Service Commission may treat a candidate who has not any of the foregoing qualifications as a qualified candidate provided that he/she has passed examination conducted by the other Institutions, the standard of which in the opinion of the Commission justifies his/her admission to the examination.

NOTE III :
Candidates possessing professional and technical qualifications which are recognised by Government as equivalent t o professional and technical degree would also be eligible for admission to the examination.

NOTE IV :
Candidates who have passed the final professional M.B.B.S. or any other Medical Examination but have not completed their internship by the time of submission of their applications for the Civil Services (Main) Examination, will be provisionally admitted to the Examination provided they submit along with their application a copy of certificate from the concerned authority of the University/Institution that they had passed the requisite final professional medical examination. In such cases, the candidates will be required to produce at the time of their interview original Degree or a certificate from the concerned competent authority of the University/Institution that they had completed all requirements (including completion of internship) for the award of the Degree.

(iv) Number of attempts :
Every candidate appearing at the examination who is otherwise eligible, shall be permitted four attempts at the examination. Provided that this restriction on the number of attempts will not apply in the case of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes candidates who are otherwise eligible.

Provided further that the number of attempts permissible to candidates belonging to Other Backward Classes, who are otherwise eligible shall be seven. The relaxation will be available to the candidates who are eligible to avail of reservation applicable to such candidates.

Provided further that a physically handicapped will get as many attempts as are available to other non-physically handicapped candidates of his or her community, subject to the condition that a physically handicapped candidate belonging to the General Category shall be eligible for seven attempts. The relaxation will be available to the physically handicapped candidates who are eligible to avail of reservation applicable to such candidates.

NOTE :
(i) An attempt at a Preliminary Examination shall be deemed to be an attempt at the Examination.

(ii) If a candidate actually appears in any one paper in the Preliminary Examination, he/she shall be deemed to have made an attempt at the Examination.

(iii) Notwithstanding the disqualification/ cancellation of candidature, the fact of appearance of the candidate at the examination will count as an attempt.

(v) Restrictions on applying for the examination : A candidate who is appointed to the Indian Administrative Service or the Indian Foreign Service on the results of an earlier examination and continues to be a member of that service will not be eligible to compete at this examination.

In case such a candidate is appointed to the IAS/IFS after the Preliminary Examination of Civil Services Examination on that year is over and he/she continues to be a member of that service, he/she shall not be eligible to appear in the Civil Services (Main) Examination, notwithstanding his/her having qualified in the Preliminary Examination.

Also provided that if such a candidate is appointed to IAS/IFS after the commencement of the Civil Services (Main) Examination but before the result thereof and continues to be a member of that service, he/she shall not be considered for appointment to any service/post on the basis of the result of this examination viz. Civil Services Examination.

(vi) Physical Standards :
Candidates must be physically fit according to physical standards for admission to Civil Services Examination as per guidelines given in Appendix-III of Rules for Examination published in the Gazette of India Extraordinary.

4. FEE :
(a) Candidates applying Online (exempting Female/SC/ST/PH Candidates who are exempted from payment of fee) are required to pay a reduced fee of Rs. 50/- (Rupees Fifty only) either by remitting the money in any Branch of SBI by Cash, or by using net banking facility of SBI or by using Visa/Master Credit/Debit Card.

(b) Candidates applying Offline (through Common Application Form) are required to pay a fee of Rs. 100/- (Rupees One Hundred only) through a single Central Recruitment Stamp. Central Recruitment Fee Stamp (NOT Postage Stamp) of the requisite denomination may be obtained from the Post Office and affixed on the application form in the space provided therein. The stamp must be got cancelled from the issuing Post Office with the date stamp of the Post Office in such a manner that the impression of the cancellation mark partially overflows on the application form itself but within the space provided on the Application form itself. The impression of the cancellation mark should be clear and distinct to facilitate the identification of date and the Post Office of issue. Candidates residing abroad should deposit the prescribed fee in the office of India's High Commissioner, Ambassador or representative abroad as the case may be for credit to account head "051-Public ServiceCommission-Examination Fees" and attach the receipt with the application.

All female candidates and candidates belonging Scheduled Caste/Scheduled Tribe/ Physically Handicapped categories are exempted from payment of fee.

No fee exemption is, however, available to OBC candidates and they are required to pay the prescribed fee in full.

Physically disabled persons are exempted from the payment of fee provided they are otherwise eligible for appointment to the Services/Posts to be filled on the results of this examination on the basis of the standards of medical fitness for these Services/Posts (including any concessions specifically extended to the physically disabled).

A physically disabled candidate claimingfee concession will be required by the Commission to submit along with their Detailed Application Form, a certified copy of the certificate from a Government Hospital/Medical Board in support of his/her claim for being physically disabled.

NOTE :
Notwithstanding the aforesaid provision for fee exemption, a physically disabled candidate will be considered to be eligible for appointment only if he/she (after such physical examination as the Government or the Appointing Authority, as the case may be, may prescribe) is found to satisfy the requirements of physical and medical standards for the concerned Services/Posts to be allocated to physically disabled candidates by the Government.

'Postage Stamps' will in no case be accepted in lieu of 'Central Recruitment Fee Stamp'. Candidates should note that the fee sent through Indian Postal Orders, Bank Draft, Money Order, Crossed Cheque, Currency notes or Treasury Challan etc. will not be accepted by the Commission and such applications will be treated as without fee and will be summarily rejected.

NOTE I :
APPLICATIONS NOT ACCOMPANIED BY THE PRESCRIBED FEE (UNLESS REMISSION OF FEE IS CLAIMED) SHALL BE SUMMARILY REJECTED.

NOTE II :
Fee once paid shall not be refunded under any circumstances nor can the fee be held in reserve for any other examination or selection.

NOTE III :
If any candidate who took the Civil Services Examination held in 2010 wishes to apply for admission to this examination, he/she must submit his/her application so as to reach the Commission’s Office by the prescribed date without waiting for the results or an offer of appointment.

NOTE IV :
Candidates admitted to the Main Examination will be required to pay a further fee of Rs. 200/- (Rupees Two hundreds only).

5. HOW TO APPLY :
(a) Candidates may apply online using the website http://www.upsconline.nic.in/ Detailed instructions for filling up online applications are available on the abovementioned website.

(b) Candidates may also apply offline in the Common Application form devised by the commission for its examinations which can be processed on computerized machines. This application form along with an Information Brochure containing general instructions for filling up the form, an acknowledgement card and an envelope for sending the application will be obtainable from the designated Head Post Offices/Post Offices throughout the country as listed in Appendix-III of Notice against cash payment of Rs. 30/- (Rupees Thirty only). Form should be purchased from the designated Head Post Offices/Post Offices only and not from any other agency. This Form can be used only once and for only one examination. Candidates who wish to apply offline must use the form supplied with the Information Brochure only and they should in no case use photocopy/reproduction/unauthorisedly printed copy of the Form. Since this form is electronically scanned, due care should be taken to fill up the application form, correctly. While filling up the application form, please refer to detailed instructions given in Appendix-II(B) of this Notice. The candidates should also fill up in the relevant places of the Acknowledgement Card, their Application Form Number and the name of the examination. The applicants are required to affix the postage stamp of Rs. Six on the Acknowledgement Card and send the same along with application form to UPSC.

If an applicant fails to affix the postage s t a m p o f r e q u i s i t e a m o u n t h i s acknowledgement card will not be dispatched and Commission will not be res p o n s i b l e f o r n o n - r e c e i p t o f acknowledgement cards by the applicant. The duly filled in application form and the acknowledgement card should then be mailed in the special envelope supplied with the Information Brochure. The candidate should also write the name of examination viz. Civil Services (Preliminary) Examination, 2011 on the envelope before dispatching it to Controller of Examinations, Union Public Service Commission, Dholpur House, Shahjahan Road, New Delhi-110069.

(c) All candidates, whether already in Government Service, Government owned ind u s t r i a l u n d e r t a k i n g s o r o t h e r s imi l a r organisations or in private employment should submit their applications direct to the Commission. If any candidate forwards his/her application through his/her employer and it reaches the Union Public Service Commission late, the application, even if submitted to the employer before the closing date, will not be considered.

Persons already in Government Service, whether in a permanent or temporary capacity or as workcharged employees other than casual or daily rated employees or those serving under the Public Enterprises are however, required to submit an undertaking that they have informed in writing their Head of Office/Department that they have applied for the Examination. Candidates should note that in case a communication is received from their employer by the Commission withholding permission to the candidates applying for/appearing at the examination, their application will be liable to be rejected/candidature will be liable to be cancelled.

NOTE 1 :
While filling in his/her Application Form, the candidate should carefully decide about his/her choice of centre for the Examination. More than one application from a candidate giving different centres will not be accepted in any case. Even if a candidate sends more than one completed application the Commission will accept only one application at their discretion and the Commission's decision in the matter shall be final.

If any candidate appears at a centre other than the one indicated by the Commission in his/her Admission Certificate, the papers of such a candidate will not be valued and his/her candidature will be liable to cancellation.

NOTE 2 :
Since these Application Forms are to be processed in a computerised system, due care should be taken by the candidates to fill up their Application Form correctly. Necessary instructions for filling up the Form may be seen at Appendix II

(B). No relevant columns of the application should be left blank. Incomplete or defective applications shall be summarily rejected. No representation or correspondence regarding such rejection shall be entertained under any circumstances. Candidates are not required to submit alongwith their applications any certificate in support of their claims regarding Age, Educational Qualifications, Scheduled Castes/Scheduled Tribes/Other Backward Classes and Physically disabled etc. which will be verified at the time of the Main examination only. The candidates applying for the examination should ensure that they fulfil all the eligibility conditions for admission to the Examination. Their admission at all the stages of examination for which they are admitted by the Commission viz. Preliminary Examination, Main (Written) Examination and Interview Test will be purely provisional, subject to their satisfying the prescribed eligibility conditions. If on verification at any time before or after the Preliminary Examination, Main (written) Examination and Interview Test, it is found that they do not fulfil any of the eligibility conditions, their candidature for the examination will be cancelled by the Commission.

If any of their claims is found to be incorrect, they may render themselves liable to disciplinary action by the Commission in terms of Rule 14 of the Rules for the Civil Services Examination, 2011 reproduced below :

A candidate who is or has been declared by the Commission to be guilty of :
(i) Obtaining support for his/her candidature by the following means, namely :–
(a) offering illegal gratification to, or
(b) applying pressure on, or
(c) blackmai l ing, or threatening to blackmail any person connected with the conduct of the examination, or
(ii) impersonating, or
(iii) procuring impersonation by any person, or
(iv) submitting fabricated documents or documents which have been tampered with, or
(v) making statements which are incorrect or false or suppressing material information, or
(vi) resorting to the following means in connection with his/her candidature for the examination, namely
(a) obtaining copy of question paper through improper means,
(b) finding out the particulars of the persons connected with secret work relating to the examination.
(c) influencing the examiners, or
(vii) using unfair means during the examination, or
(viii)writing obscene matter or drawing obscene sketches in the scripts, or
(ix) misbehaving in the examination hall including tearing of the scripts, provoking fellow examinees to boycott examination, creating a disorderly scene and the like, or
(x) harassing or doing bodily harm to the staff employed by the Commission for the conduct of their examinations, or
(xi) being in possession of or using mobile phone, pager or any electronic equipment or device or any other equipment capable of being used as a communication device during the examination; or
(xii) violating any of the instructions issued to candidates along with their Admission T h e candidates should note that applications will be received by hand only one at a time at thee designated counter(s) and not in bulk, till 5 PM only.

NOTE IV:
Applications received through Couriers or Cour ier Services of any type shal l be treated as having been received "By hand" at the Commission's Counter.

7. ACKNOWLEDGEMENT OF APPLICATIONS :
Immediately on receipt of an application from a candidate, the Acknowledgement Card submitted by him/her alongwith the Application Form will be despatched to him/h e r b y t h e Commi s s i o n ’ s Of f i c e d u l y stamped in token of receipt of his/her Application. If a candidate does not receive the Acknowledgement Card within 30 days, he/she should at once contact the Commission by quoting his/her Application Form No. and name & year of examination. Candidates delivering the Application Form i n p e r s o n a t t h e Commi s s i o n ’ s Counter will be issued Acknowledgement Card at the Counter itself. The mere fact that a candidate’s application has been acknowledged by the Commission does not mean that his/her candidature for the examination has been accepted by the Commission. Candidates will be informed at the earliest possible about their admission to the examination or rejection of their application.

8 . CORRESPONDENCE WITH THE COMMISSION:
The Commission will not enter into any correspondence with the candidates about their candidature except in the following cases:

(i) Every candidate for this examination will be informed at the earliest possible date of the result of his/her application. Admission Certificates, indicating the Roll Nos. will be issued to the candidates who are admitted to the examination. The Admission Certificate will bear the photograph of the candidate. If a candidate does not receive his Admission Certificate or any other communication regarding his/her candidature for the examination three weeks before the commencement of the examination, he/she should at once contact the Commission. On receipt of such a communication, Admission Certificate or a duplicate copy thereto will be issued to the admitted candidate. Information in this regard can also be obtained from the Facilitation Counter located in the Commission’s Office either in person or over phone Nos. 011-23381125/011-23385271/ 011-23098543. In case no communication is received in the Commission's Office from the candidate regarding non-receipt of his/her Admission Certificate atleast 3 weeks before the examination, he/she himself/herself will be solely responsible for non-receipt of his/her Admission Certificate. It may be noted that the Admission Certificate will be issued at the address as photocopied from the Application Form filled in by the candidate. The candidate should, therefore, ensure that address given by him/her in the Application Form is correct and complete with pin code.

No candidate will ordinarily be allowed to take the examination unless he/she holds a certificate of admission for the examination. On the receipt of Admission Certificate, check it carefully and bring discrepancies/errors, if any, to the notice of UPSC immediately. The candidates should note that their admission to the examination will be purely provisional based on the information given by them in the Application Form. This will be subject to verification of all the eligibility conditions by the UPSC.

The mere fact that a certificate of admission to the Examination has been issued to a candidate, will not imply that his/her candidature has been finally cleared by the Commission or that entries made by the candidate in his/her application for the Preliminary examination have been accepted by the Commission as true and correct. Candidates may note that the Commission takes up the verification of eligibility conditions of a candidate, with reference to original documents, only after the candidate has qualified for Civil Services (Main) Examination. Unless candidature is formally confirmed by the Commission, it continues to be provisional.

The decision of the Commission as to the eligibility or otherwise of a candidate for admission to the Examination shall be final. Candidates should note that the name in the Admission Certificate in some cases, may be abbreviated due to technical reasons.

(ii) In the event of a candidate receiving more than one Admission Certificate from the Commission, he/she should use only one of these Admission Certificates for appearing in the examination and return the other(s) to the Commission's Office.

(iii) A candidate must see that communications sent to him/her at the address stated in his/her application are redirected, if necessary. Change in address should be communicated to the Commission at the earliest opportunity. Although the Commission make every effort to take account of such changes, they cannot accept any responsibility in the matter.

(iv) Candidates are informed that as the Preliminary Examination is only a screening test, no marks sheets will be supplied to successful or unsuccessful to be Confirmed candidates and no correspondence will be entertained by the Commission, in this regard.

(v) If a candidate receives an Admission Certificate in respect of some other candidate on account of handling error, the same should be immediately returned to the Commission with a request to issue the
correct Admission Certificate. Candidates may note that they will not be allowed to take the examination on the strength of an Admission Certificate issued in respect of another candidate.

IMPORTANT : ALL COMMUNICATIONS
TO THE COMMISSION SHOULD INVARIABLY CONTAIN THE FOLLOWING PARTICULARS.
1. NAME AND YEAR OF THE EXAMINATION.
2. APPLICATION FORM NUMBER
3. ROLL NUMBER (IF RECEIVED)
4. NAME OF CANDIDATE (IN FULL AND IN BLOCK LETTERS)
5. COMPLETE POSTAL ADDRESS AS GIVEN IN THE APPLICATION.
N.B. I. COMMUNICATION NOT CONTAINING THE ABOVE PARTICULARS MAY NOT BE ATTENDED TO. N.B. II. CANDIDATES SHOULD ALSO NOTE DOWN THEIR APPLICATION FORM NUMBER FOR FUTURE REFERENCE. THEY MAY BE REQUIRED TO INDICATE THE SAME IN CONNECTION WITH THEIR CANDIDATURE FOR THE CIVIL SERVICES (MAIN) EXAMINATION.

9. The eligibility for availing reservation against the vacancies reserved for the physically disabled persons shall be the same as prescribed in "The Persons with Disability (Equal Opportunities, Protection of Rights and Full Participation) Act, 1995." Provided further that the physically disabled candidates shall also be required to meet special eligibility criteria in terms of physical requirements/functional classification (abilities/disabilities) consistent with requirements of the identified Service/Post as may be prescribed by its Cadre Controlling Authority.

The physical requirement and functional classification can for example be one or more of the following : Code Physical Requirements MF 1. Work performed by Manipulation by Fingers PP 2. Work Performed by Pulling & Pushing L 3. Work Performed by Lifting KC 4. Work Performed by Kneeling and Crouching BN 5. Work Performed by Bending S 6. Work Performed by Sitting (on bench or chair) ST 7. Work Performed by Standing W 8. Work Performed by Walking SE 9. Work Performed by Seeing H 10. Work Performed by Hearing/Speaking RW 11. Work Performed by Reading and Writing C 12. Communication Code FUNCTIONAL CLASSIFICATION BL 1. Both legs affected but not arms BA 2. Both arms affected a. Impaired Reach b. Weakness of Grip. c. ataxic BLA 3. Both legs and both arms affected. OL 4. One leg affected (R or L) a. impaired reach b. weakness of grip c. ataxic OA 5. One arm affected (R or L) a. impaired reach b. weakness of grip c. ataxic OAL 6. One arm and one leg affected MW 7. Muscular weakness. B 8. Blind LV 9. Low vision H 10. Hearing Note : The above list is subject to revision.

10. A candidate will be eligible to get the benefit of community reservation only in case the particular caste to which the candidates belongs is included in the list of reserved communities issued by the Central Government. If a candidate indicates in his/her application form for Civil Services (Preliminary) Examination that he/she belongs to General category but subsequently writes to the Commission to change his/her category to a reserved one, such request shall not be entertained by the Commission.

While the above principle will be followed in general, there may be a few cases where there was a little gap (say 2-3 months) between the issuance of a Government Notifications enlisting a particular community in the list of any of the reserved communities and the date of submission of the application by the candidate. In such cases the request of change of community from General to Reserved may be considered by the Commission on merit.

11. WITHDRAWAL OF APPLICATIONS: NO REQUEST FOR WITHDRAWAL OF CANDIDATURE RECEIVED FROM A CANDIDATE AFTER HE/SHE HAS SUBMITTED HIS/HER APPLICATION WILL BE ENTERTAINED UNDER ANY CIRCUMSTANCES. (VINAYA PRAKASH SINGH) JOINT SECRETARY UNION PUBLIC SERVICE COMMISSION

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History of computers

Computing hardware evolved from

machines that needed separate manual

action to perform each arithmetic

operation, to punched card machines,

and then to stored-program computers.

The history of stored-program

computers relates first to computer

architecture, that is, the organization of

the units to perform input and output,

to store data and to operate as an

integrated mechanism.

Before the development of the general-

purpose computer, most calculations

were done by humans. Mechanical tools

to help humans with digital calculations

were then called"calculating machines",

by proprietary names, or even as they

are now, calculators. It was those

humans who used the machines who

were then called computers. Aside from

written numerals, the first aids to

computation were purely mechanical

devices which required the operator to

set up the initial values of an

elementary arithmetic operation, then

manipulate the device to obtain the

result. A sophisticated (and

comparatively recent) example is the

slide rule in which numbers are

represented as lengths on a logarithmic

scale and computation is performed by

setting a cursor and aligning sliding

scales, thus adding those lengths.

Numbers could be represented in a

continuous"analog"form, for instance

a voltage or some other physical

property was set to be proportional to

the number. Analog computers, like

those designed and built by Vannevar

Bush before World War II were of this

type. Numbers could be represented in

the form of digits, automatically

manipulated by a mechanical

mechanism. Although this last approach

required more complex mechanisms in

many cases, it made for greater

precision of results.

The invention of electronic amplifiers

made calculating machines much faster

than their mechanical or

electromechanic -al predecessors.

Vacuum tube (thermionic valve)

amplifiers gave way to solid state

transistors, and then rapidly to

integrated circuits which continue to

improve, placing millions of electrical

switches (typically transistors) on a

single elaborately manufactured piece

of semi-conductor the size of a

fingernail. By defeating the tyranny of

numbers, integrated circuits made high-

speed and low-cost digital computers a

widespread commodity. There is an

ongoing effort to make computer

hardware faster, cheaper, and capable

of storing more data.

Computing hardware has become a

platform for uses other than mere

computation, such as process

automation, electronic communications,

equipment control, entertainment,

education, etc. Each field in turn has

imposed its own requirements on the

hardware, which has evolved in

response to those requirements, such

as the role of the touch screen to create

a more intuitive and natural user

interface.

As all computers rely on digital storage,

and tend to be limited by the size and

speed of memory, the history of

computer data storage is tied to the

development of computers.

Earliest true hardware

Devices have been used to aid

computation for thousands of years,

mostly using one-to-one

correspondence with our fingers. The

earliest counting device was probably

form of tally stick. Later record keeping

aids throughout the Fertile Crescent

included calculi (clay spheres, cones,

etc.) which represented counts of items,

probably livestock or grains. The use of counting

rods is one example.

The abacus was early used for

arithmetic tasks. What we now call the

Roman abacus was used in Babylonia

as early as 2400 BC. Since then, many

other forms of reckoning boards or

tables have been invented. In a

medieval European counting house, a

checkered cloth would be placed on a

table, and markers moved around on it

according to certain rules, as an aid to

calculating sums of money.

Several analog computers were

constructed in ancient and medieval

times to perform astronomical

calculations. These include the

Antikythera mechanism and the

astrolabe from ancient Greece (c. 150–

100 BC), which are generally regarded

as the earliest known mechanical

analog computers.Hero of Alexandria

(c. 10–70 AD) made many complex

mechanical devices including automata

and a programmable cart. Other

early versions of mechanical devices

used to perform one or another type of

calculations include the planisphere and

other mechanical computing devices

invented by Abū Rayhān al-Bīrūnī (c. AD

1000); the equatorium and universal

latitude-indepe -ndent astrolabe by Abū

Ishāq Ibrāhīm al-Zarqālī (c. AD 1015);

the astronomical analog computers of

other medieval Muslim astronomers

and engineers; and the astronomical

clock tower of Su Song (c. AD 1090)

during the Song Dynasty.Scottis -h mathematician and physicist

John Napier noted multiplication and

division of numbers could be

performed by addition and subtraction,

respectively, of logarithms of those

numbers. While producing the first

logarithmic tables Napier needed to

perform many multiplications -, and it

was at this point that he designed

Napier's bones, an abacus-like device

used for multiplication and division.

Since real numbers can be represented

as distances or intervals on a line, the

slide rule was invented in the 1620s to

allow multiplication and division

operations to be carried out

significantly faster than was previously

possible.Slide rules were used by

generations of engineers and other

mathematically involved professional

workers, until the invention of the

pocket calculator.
Wilhelm Schickard, a German polymath,
designed a calculating clock in 1623. It
made use of a single-tooth gear that
was not an adequate solution for a
general carry mechanism. A fire destroyed the machine during its
construction in 1624 and Schickard
abandoned the project. Two sketches
of it were discovered in 1957, too late
to have any impact on the development
of mechanical calculators. In 1642, while still a teenager, Blaise
Pascal started some pioneering work
on calculating machines and after three
years of effort and 50 prototypes
he invented the mechanical
calculator. He built twenty of these machines (called Pascal's
Calculator or Pascaline) in the following
ten years. Nine Pascalines have
survived, most of which are on display
in European museums.Gottfried Wilhelm
von Leibniz invented the Stepped Reckoner and his famous
cylinders around 1672 while adding
direct multiplication and division to the
Pascaline. Leibniz once said "It is
unworthy of excellent men to lose
hours like slaves in the labour of calculation which could safely be
relegated to anyone else if machines
were used."
Around 1820, Charles Xavier Thomas de
Colmar created the first successful,
mass-produced mechanical calculator, the Thomas Arithmometer, that could
add, subtract, multiply, and divide.
It was mainly based on Leibniz' work.
Mechanical calculators, like the base-ten
addiator, the comptometer, the Monroe,
the Curta and the Addo-X remained in use until the 1970s. Leibniz also
described the binary numeral
system, a central ingredient of all
modern computers. However, up to the
1940s, many subsequent designs
(including Charles Babbage's machines of the 1822 and even ENIAC of 1945)
were based on the decimal system;
ENIAC's ring counters emulated the
operation of the digit wheels of a
mechanical adding machine.
In Japan, Ryoichi Yazu patented a mechanical calculator called the Yazu
Arithmometer in 1903. It consisted of a
single cylinder and 22 gears, and
employed the mixed base-2 and base-5
number system familiar to users to the
soroban (Japanese abacus). Carry and end of calculation were determined
automatically. More than 200 units
were sold, mainly to government
agencies such as the Ministry of War
and agricultural experiment
stations.


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Punch Card Technology

In 1801, Joseph-Marie Jacquard
developed a loom in which the pattern
being woven was controlled by
punched cards. The series of cards
could be changed without changing the
mechanical design of the loom. This
was a landmark achievement in
programmability -. His machine was an
improvement over similar weaving
looms. Punch cards were preceded by
punch bands, as in the machine
proposed by Basile Bouchon. These
bands would inspire information
recording for automatic pianos and
more recently NC machine-tools.
In 1833, Charles Babbage moved on
from developing his difference engine
(for navigational calculations) to a
general purpose design, the Analytical
Engine, which drew directly on
Jacquard's punched cards for its
program storage. In 1837, Babbage
described his analytical engine. It was a
general-purpose -programmable
computer, employing punch cards for
input and a steam engine for power,
using the positions of gears and shafts
to represent numbers. His initial
idea was to use punch-cards to control
a machine that could calculate and print
logarithmic tables with huge precision
(a special purpose machine). Babbage's
idea soon developed into a general-
purpose programmable computer.
While his design was sound and the
plans were probably correct, or at least
debuggable, the project was slowed by
various problems including disputes
with the chief machinist building parts
for it. Babbage was a difficult man to
work with and argued with everyone.
All the parts for his machine had to be
made by hand. Small errors in each item
might sometimes sum to cause large
discrepancies. In a machine with
thousands of parts, which required
these parts to be much better than the
usual tolerances needed at the time, this
was a major problem. The project
dissolved in disputes with the artisan
who built parts and ended with the
decision of the British Government to
cease funding. Ada Lovelace, Lord
Byron's daughter, translated and added
notes to the"Sketch of the Analytical
Engine"by Federico Luigi, Conte
Menabrea. This appears to be the first
published description of
programming.
A reconstruction of the Difference
Engine II, an earlier, more limited
design, has been operational since
1991 at the London Science Museum.
With a few trivial changes, it works
exactly as Babbage designed it and
shows that Babbage's design ideas
were correct, merely too far ahead of
his time. The museum used computer-
controlled machine tools to construct
the necessary parts, using tolerances a
good machinist of the period would
have been able to achieve. Babbage's
failure to complete the analytical engine
can be chiefly attributed to difficulties
not only of politics and financing, but
also to his desire to develop an
increasingly sophisticated computer
and to move ahead faster than anyone
else could follow.
A machine based on Babbage's
difference engine was built in 1843 by
Per Georg Scheutz and his son Edward.
An improved Scheutzian calculation
engine was sold to the British
government and a later model was sold
to the American government and these
were used successfully in the
production of logarithmic tables.
Following Babbage, although unaware
of his earlier work, was Percy Ludgate,
an accountant from Dublin, Ireland. He
independently designed a
programmable mechanical computer,
which he described in a work that was
published in 1909.
1880s: punched card data storage

In the late 1880s, the American Herman
Hollerith invented data storage on a
medium that could then be read by a
machine. Prior uses of machine
readable media had been for control
( automatons such as piano rolls or
looms), not data."After some initial
trials with paper tape, he settled on
punched cards..."Hollerith came to
use punched cards after observing
how railroad conductors encoded
personal characteristics -of each
passenger with punches on their
tickets. To process these punched cards
he invented the tabulator, and the key
punch machine. These three inventions
were the foundation of the modern
information processing industry. His
machines used mechanical relays (and
solenoids) to increment mechanical
counters. Hollerith's method was used
in the 1890 United States Census and
the completed results were"... finished
months ahead of schedule and far
under budget". Indeed, the census
was processed years faster than the
prior census had been. Hollerith's
company eventually became the core
of IBM. IBM developed punch card
technology into a powerful tool for
business data-processing -and produced
an extensive line of unit record
equipment. By 1950, the IBM card had
become ubiquitous in industry and
government. The warning printed on
most cards intended for circulation as
documents (checks, for example),"Do
not fold, spindle or mutilate,"became a
catch phrase for the post-World War II
era.

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